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NO.1 You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com. You deploy a server that
has Exchange Server 2013 installed. You plan to install eight additional servers that have exchange
Server 2013 installed. You are a member of the Organization Management role group. You hire a
temporary Exchange administrator named Temp1.
The company's security policy states that all external consultants must have the minimum number of
required permissions on the network.
You need to ensure that Temp1 can install a server named Server5. The solution must meet the
requirements of the security policy.
Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. Run setup and specify the /newprovisionedserver:Server5 parameter.
B. Add Temp1 to the Delegated Setup management role group.
C. Add Temp1 to the Exchange Server role group.
D. Create a new management role and a new role assignment policy.
E. Run setup and specify the /roles:temp1 parameter
Answer: A,B
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NO.2 Your company named Contoso, Ltd., has an Exchange Server 2013 organization named
contoso.com.
The network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains an organizational unit (OU)
named SalesOU. SalesOU contains two users named User1 and User2.
Contoso purchases a domain name adatum.com.
You need to change the primary SMTP address of all the users in SalesOU to use the SMTP suffix of
adatum.com. The solution must not remove the contoso.com email address.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. Create a new email address policy and apply the policy to the users in SalesOU.
B. Change the default email address policy to include adatum.com.
C. Create a new remote domain for adatum.com.
D. Create a new accepted domain for adatum.com and set the domain type to Authoritative Domain.
E. Create a new accepted domain for adatum.com and set the domain type to External RelayDomain.
Answer: A,D
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NO.3 You are evaluating the deployment of the additional Exchange Server 2013 servers.
You need to recommend changes to the transport configurations to ensure that all email messages
sent from the Detroit office are routed through EX2.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Increase the cost of the CHI-NY site link to 15.
B. Specify an Exchange-specific cost of 20 for the CHI-DET site link.
C. Decrease the cost of the CHI-NY and the DET-NY site links to 4.
D. Increase the cost of the DET-NY site link to 15.
Answer: B
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NO.4 How would you disable the anti malware filtering and ensure that engine updates from
microsoft are downloaded and updated.
A. Disable-Antimalwareagent.ps1
B. Set-malwarefilteringserver
C. Disable-Antimalwarescanning.ps1 (probable option)
D. Update-MalwareFilteringServer.ps1 (guessed option)
Answer: C
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NO.5 HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains one
domain and two sites named Site1 and Site2. Site1 connects directly to the Internet.
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization.
Users access their email remotely by using Outlook Web App and Outlook Anywhere by connecting to
the name mail.contoso.com.
You plan to migrate to Exchange Server 2013.
Exchange Server 2010 and Exchange Server 2013 will co-exist for several months during the
migration. During the co-existence phase, the organization will contain seven servers. The servers will
be configured as shown in the following table.
You need to identify which host names must be associated to which servers. The solution must
ensure that the users can access mailboxes on EX2, EX4, EX6, and EX7.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate target for each host name in the dialog box
in the answer area.)
Answer:
NO.6 DRAG DROP
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains several custom RBAC management
roles.
You need to identify which RBAC scopes must be used to meet the following requirements:
- Manage only the mailboxes of the users in the sales department.
- Manage the properties of all the mailbox databases.
Which RBAC scopes should you identify? (To answer, drag the appropriate RBAC scopes to the
correct requirements. Each RBAC scope may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Answer:
NO.7 You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two Client Access servers and two
Mailbox servers.
You configure DNS round robin on the Client Access servers. All of the host (A) and alias (CNAME)
records in the DNS zone are configured to have a TTL value of 10 minutes.
You need to recommend a solution to fail over client connections to a Client Access server
automatically if Internet Information Services (US) fails. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you recommend?
A. Deploy a Client Access server array.
B. Reduce the TTL values on all of the A and CNAME records to one minute.
C. Deploy a hardware load balancing solution.
D. Deploy Network Load Balancing (NLB) on each Client Access server.
Answer: C
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NO.8 You need to configure the address books to meet the business goal for the finance department.
Which four cmdlets should you use?
A. Set-MailUser, New-OfflineAddressBook, New-AddressBookPolicy, and New-GlobalAddressList
B. Set-MailUser, New-OfflineAddressBook, New-GlobalAddressList, and New-AddressList
C. Set-Mailbox, New-DistributionGroup, New-AddressBookPolicy. and New-AddressList
D. Set-Mailbox, New-AddressBookPolicy, New-GlobalAddressList, and New-AddressList
Answer: D
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2015年4月22日星期三
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NO.1 A customer wants to implement 8 LPARs, 4 of IBM i and 4 of AIX. The customer wants the new
systems to be modular, configured to support their needs, and have room to expand if needed.
Which system is the minimum needed to support the customer requirements?
A. PureElex p220
B. PureElex p260
C. PureFlex p24L
D. PureFlex p460
Answer: B
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NO.2 A customer would like to consolidate their AIX and IBM i workloads that are currently running
on several POWER6 servers. They also want to consolidate storage and use Live Partition Mobility to
reduce planned downtime for server maintenance.
In addition to a Storwize V70001 PowerVM Enterprise Edition and dual VIO Servers, which of the
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A. One POWER7+ server IBM i and AIX client LPARs
B. Two POWER7+ servers IBM i and AIX client LPARs
C. One POWER7+ server AIX client LPARs IBM i LPAR5 with internal storage
D. Two POWER7+ servers AIX client LPAR5 IBM i LPARs with internal storage
Answer: B
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NO.3 A customer plans to deploy a 24x7 application, and is evaluating prospective solutions based
on which would offer the highest level of application availability.
Which of the following solutions should be presented to the customer for consideration?
A. Power 780 with Active Memory Sharing
B. Power 770 with Active Memory Mirroring
C. Power 760 with Active Memory Mirroring
D. Power 740 with Active Memory Management
Answer: B
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NO.4 Which of the following will cause Live Partition Mobility validation to fail?
A. Less than one full processor
B. AME configured for the partition
C. Network connection through HEA
D. NPIV connection to SAN storage through VIOS
Answer: C
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NO.5 A customer is interested in virtualizing their environment. PowerVM and VMware are the
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Which advantage of PowerVM over VMware will most benefit their environment?
A. Industry leading hypervisor
B. Lower total cost of ownership
C. Consolidation of multiple workloads
D. Hypervisor components embedded in hardware
Answer: D
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NO.6 Which is one of the advantages of the 6-core Power 720 when compared to the 4-core Power
720?
A. Offers a P05 tier
B. Offers one 12X loop
C. Offers Dual VIO Servers
D. Offers more SAS Disk Bays in CEO
Answer: B
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NO.7 A customer is considering running Linux in a virtualized environment and is evaluating the
differences between PowerVM and VMware.
Which of the following would be an advantage of PowerVM?
A. Number of virtual processors
B. Ability to move virtual machines
C. Ability to dynamically add CPU's
D. Ability to dynamically add memory
Answer: A
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NO.8 A customer wants to implement Linux on Power with dual VIO Servers on internal disk
controllers. Which of the following systems should be suggested?
A. Power 720
B. Power 730
C. PowerLinux 7R1
D. PowerLinux 7R2
Answer: A
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NO.1 A customer wants to implement 8 LPARs, 4 of IBM i and 4 of AIX. The customer wants the new
systems to be modular, configured to support their needs, and have room to expand if needed.
Which system is the minimum needed to support the customer requirements?
A. PureElex p220
B. PureElex p260
C. PureFlex p24L
D. PureFlex p460
Answer: B
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NO.2 A customer would like to consolidate their AIX and IBM i workloads that are currently running
on several POWER6 servers. They also want to consolidate storage and use Live Partition Mobility to
reduce planned downtime for server maintenance.
In addition to a Storwize V70001 PowerVM Enterprise Edition and dual VIO Servers, which of the
following configurations supports these requirements?
A. One POWER7+ server IBM i and AIX client LPARs
B. Two POWER7+ servers IBM i and AIX client LPARs
C. One POWER7+ server AIX client LPARs IBM i LPAR5 with internal storage
D. Two POWER7+ servers AIX client LPAR5 IBM i LPARs with internal storage
Answer: B
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NO.3 A customer plans to deploy a 24x7 application, and is evaluating prospective solutions based
on which would offer the highest level of application availability.
Which of the following solutions should be presented to the customer for consideration?
A. Power 780 with Active Memory Sharing
B. Power 770 with Active Memory Mirroring
C. Power 760 with Active Memory Mirroring
D. Power 740 with Active Memory Management
Answer: B
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NO.4 Which of the following will cause Live Partition Mobility validation to fail?
A. Less than one full processor
B. AME configured for the partition
C. Network connection through HEA
D. NPIV connection to SAN storage through VIOS
Answer: C
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NO.5 A customer is interested in virtualizing their environment. PowerVM and VMware are the
products whose hypervisors are best suited for their existing infrastructure.
Which advantage of PowerVM over VMware will most benefit their environment?
A. Industry leading hypervisor
B. Lower total cost of ownership
C. Consolidation of multiple workloads
D. Hypervisor components embedded in hardware
Answer: D
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NO.6 Which is one of the advantages of the 6-core Power 720 when compared to the 4-core Power
720?
A. Offers a P05 tier
B. Offers one 12X loop
C. Offers Dual VIO Servers
D. Offers more SAS Disk Bays in CEO
Answer: B
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NO.7 A customer is considering running Linux in a virtualized environment and is evaluating the
differences between PowerVM and VMware.
Which of the following would be an advantage of PowerVM?
A. Number of virtual processors
B. Ability to move virtual machines
C. Ability to dynamically add CPU's
D. Ability to dynamically add memory
Answer: A
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NO.8 A customer wants to implement Linux on Power with dual VIO Servers on internal disk
controllers. Which of the following systems should be suggested?
A. Power 720
B. Power 730
C. PowerLinux 7R1
D. PowerLinux 7R2
Answer: A
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NO.1 Which of the following elements can directly influence whether an availability check will be
performed? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The schedule line category in the sales document
B. The item category in the delivery document
C. The check group in the material master
D. The item category in the sales document
E. The sales document type
Answer: A,B,C
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NO.2 Which of the following statements regarding material determination are correct? Note:
There are
2
correct answers to this question.
A. Condition tables must be defined in Customizing (IMG).
B. The definition of the substitution reason determines whether a manual or an automatic
substitution process should be used.
C. The material determination procedure is assigned to a combination of sales areas, customer
pricing procedures, and document pricing procedures.
D. The relevant substitution reason is specified in the access sequence.
Answer: A,B
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NO.3 The availability check (ATP) is carried out based on which of the following dates?
A. The material availability date
B. The transportation planning date
C. The goods issue date
D. The loading date
Answer: A
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NO.4 In the system, it is possible to have zero stock available and still receive a confirmed
schedule line
in the sales order. Which of the following states the reason for this confirmation?
A. Stock will be taken from another delivery at the shipping point.
B. The system automatically searches other plants for inventory and transfers this inventory to
the
plant with zero inventory in the sales order.
C. The availability check that was carried out included a replenishment lead time in the scope of
check.
D. A stock transfer will be created by inventory management when you save the sales order.
Answer: C
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NO.5 During sales order processing, a user will be alerted when stock is not available for material
entered in the sales order if the availability check was carried out. In which of the following ways
will the user be alerted about this situation?
A. An error message will appear on the status bar alerting the user to the situation.
B. The schedule line will be marked and highlighted by the system.
C. The availability control screen will be displayed.
D. The incompletion log will display the unconfirmed schedule line as a missing field.
Answer: C
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NO.6 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components realizes cross-system application
processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
C. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A
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NO.7 The entry for the assignment of the incompleteness procedures to the sales document types
contains the following information: Sales Type: OR Description: Standard Order Procedure: 11
Description: Sales Order Field: IC-dialog is flagged. Which of the following conclusions can you
draw from this entry?
A. Incomplete standard orders must be released in a dialog for further process steps.
B. Procedure 11 specifies which fields in standard orders (header data) are checked for
completeness and order type OR cannot be saved if any of the fields are incomplete.
C. Incomplete standard orders can be saved after a warning message (dialog) appears.
D. Incomplete standard orders can be saved.
Answer: B
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NO.8 Which of the following statements regarding the free goods process is correct?
A. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity will always create a subitem.
B. Free goods with inclusive bonus quantity will always take place without a subitem being
generated.
C. The free goods calculation rule only allows for whole unit free goods bonus increments.
D. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity must contain the same material for the ordered
goods
and the free goods.
Answer: A
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NO.1 Which of the following elements can directly influence whether an availability check will be
performed? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. The schedule line category in the sales document
B. The item category in the delivery document
C. The check group in the material master
D. The item category in the sales document
E. The sales document type
Answer: A,B,C
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NO.2 Which of the following statements regarding material determination are correct? Note:
There are
2
correct answers to this question.
A. Condition tables must be defined in Customizing (IMG).
B. The definition of the substitution reason determines whether a manual or an automatic
substitution process should be used.
C. The material determination procedure is assigned to a combination of sales areas, customer
pricing procedures, and document pricing procedures.
D. The relevant substitution reason is specified in the access sequence.
Answer: A,B
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NO.3 The availability check (ATP) is carried out based on which of the following dates?
A. The material availability date
B. The transportation planning date
C. The goods issue date
D. The loading date
Answer: A
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NO.4 In the system, it is possible to have zero stock available and still receive a confirmed
schedule line
in the sales order. Which of the following states the reason for this confirmation?
A. Stock will be taken from another delivery at the shipping point.
B. The system automatically searches other plants for inventory and transfers this inventory to
the
plant with zero inventory in the sales order.
C. The availability check that was carried out included a replenishment lead time in the scope of
check.
D. A stock transfer will be created by inventory management when you save the sales order.
Answer: C
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NO.5 During sales order processing, a user will be alerted when stock is not available for material
entered in the sales order if the availability check was carried out. In which of the following ways
will the user be alerted about this situation?
A. An error message will appear on the status bar alerting the user to the situation.
B. The schedule line will be marked and highlighted by the system.
C. The availability control screen will be displayed.
D. The incompletion log will display the unconfirmed schedule line as a missing field.
Answer: C
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NO.6 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components realizes cross-system application
processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
C. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A
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NO.7 The entry for the assignment of the incompleteness procedures to the sales document types
contains the following information: Sales Type: OR Description: Standard Order Procedure: 11
Description: Sales Order Field: IC-dialog is flagged. Which of the following conclusions can you
draw from this entry?
A. Incomplete standard orders must be released in a dialog for further process steps.
B. Procedure 11 specifies which fields in standard orders (header data) are checked for
completeness and order type OR cannot be saved if any of the fields are incomplete.
C. Incomplete standard orders can be saved after a warning message (dialog) appears.
D. Incomplete standard orders can be saved.
Answer: B
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NO.8 Which of the following statements regarding the free goods process is correct?
A. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity will always create a subitem.
B. Free goods with inclusive bonus quantity will always take place without a subitem being
generated.
C. The free goods calculation rule only allows for whole unit free goods bonus increments.
D. Free goods with exclusive bonus quantity must contain the same material for the ordered
goods
and the free goods.
Answer: A
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NO.1 For an interview, you have prepared a use case diagram for the system to be specified. You
decide to talk through a use case in detail with the stakeholder. You receive very useful feedback
which must now be documented. Which of the following means of expression is least suitable to
document the details of a single use case? (1 Point)
A. State diagram
B. Activity diagram
C. Natural language
D. Context diagram
E. Class diagram
Answer: D
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NO.2 Which sentence best characterises the term "stakeholder"? (1 Point)
A. The external actors interacting with a system and the technical interfaces to surrounding systems
are designated as stakeholders.
B. Stakeholders are persons and organisations affected by the development and the use of the
system or of the product.
C. Stakeholders are special interest representatives who are responsible for the approval of the first
project phase.
D. A stakeholder is responsible for the administration of the software development environment.
Answer: B
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You have been commissioned to analyze a change request for its possible impact. Which of the
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Answer: B,C,E,G
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NO.4 Requirements elicitation: Your company has received a customer contract to develop a system
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It is your task to identify the requirements for this scheduling system. You have arranged
appointments for interviews with three key members of the customer's staff, and are now preparing
interview questions.
Which of the questions below are appropriate interview questions for the requirements elicitation?
(2 Points)
A. What are the most important technical terms for the application and how are they defined?
B. If the delivery deadline is not met, is a contract penalty to be paid?
C. What data quantities / data rates are to be processed?
D. When is the installation of the completed system to be started?
Answer: C
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A. The introduction of a tool defines the future requirements engineering approach
B. Risks associated with the introduction can be identified through a pilot operation
C. The requirements engineering processes must be clearly defined before introduction
D. The license costs are generally the greatest cost block relating to the introduction of a
requirements engineering tool
Answer: C,D
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NO.6 As part of the "UniKasso" project, the "CRETIL" company is standardising the payment
methods for all customers. The requirements specification has been created and the first release is
currently being implemented.
This week, the management has decided to include the implementation of the "credit card" mode of
payment in the first release and to shift the "direct debit" mode of payment to the second release.
The test manager receives the order to adjust the test planning accordingly.
Which particular characteristic of the requirements will facilitate the work of the test manager
significantly in this respect? (1 Point)
A. Coherence
B. Testability
C. Flexibility
D. Stability
E. Traceability
Answer: E
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NO.1 For an interview, you have prepared a use case diagram for the system to be specified. You
decide to talk through a use case in detail with the stakeholder. You receive very useful feedback
which must now be documented. Which of the following means of expression is least suitable to
document the details of a single use case? (1 Point)
A. State diagram
B. Activity diagram
C. Natural language
D. Context diagram
E. Class diagram
Answer: D
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NO.2 Which sentence best characterises the term "stakeholder"? (1 Point)
A. The external actors interacting with a system and the technical interfaces to surrounding systems
are designated as stakeholders.
B. Stakeholders are persons and organisations affected by the development and the use of the
system or of the product.
C. Stakeholders are special interest representatives who are responsible for the approval of the first
project phase.
D. A stakeholder is responsible for the administration of the software development environment.
Answer: B
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NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
You have been commissioned to analyze a change request for its possible impact. Which of the
following aspects must be analyzed for this? (2 Points)
Answer: B,C,E,G
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NO.4 Requirements elicitation: Your company has received a customer contract to develop a system
for the scheduling of the customer's delivery vans.
It is your task to identify the requirements for this scheduling system. You have arranged
appointments for interviews with three key members of the customer's staff, and are now preparing
interview questions.
Which of the questions below are appropriate interview questions for the requirements elicitation?
(2 Points)
A. What are the most important technical terms for the application and how are they defined?
B. If the delivery deadline is not met, is a contract penalty to be paid?
C. What data quantities / data rates are to be processed?
D. When is the installation of the completed system to be started?
Answer: C
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NO.5 Which two statements are correct with regard to the introduction of a requirements
engineering tool? (2 Points)
A. The introduction of a tool defines the future requirements engineering approach
B. Risks associated with the introduction can be identified through a pilot operation
C. The requirements engineering processes must be clearly defined before introduction
D. The license costs are generally the greatest cost block relating to the introduction of a
requirements engineering tool
Answer: C,D
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NO.6 As part of the "UniKasso" project, the "CRETIL" company is standardising the payment
methods for all customers. The requirements specification has been created and the first release is
currently being implemented.
This week, the management has decided to include the implementation of the "credit card" mode of
payment in the first release and to shift the "direct debit" mode of payment to the second release.
The test manager receives the order to adjust the test planning accordingly.
Which particular characteristic of the requirements will facilitate the work of the test manager
significantly in this respect? (1 Point)
A. Coherence
B. Testability
C. Flexibility
D. Stability
E. Traceability
Answer: E
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NO.1 An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using
over
90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer.
Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a
script? (Choose three.)
A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares
Answer: A,B,D
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Pay-As-You-
Go allocation model. The user needs to determine the charges being incurred for resource usage.
Which report type does the user need?
A. Showback Report
B. Usage Report
C. Cost Comparison Report
D. Cost Report
Answer: D
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NO.3 As a System Administrator you can disable an Organization vDC. Disabling will have which of
the
following effects? (Choose two)
A. vApps in the Org vDC that are not running cannot be powered on.
B. All vApps in the Org vDC will be shutdown.
C. Users will not be able to create or start additional vApps in that Org vDC.
D. The running vApps in the Org vDC will have their storage lease reset.
Answer: A,C
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NO.4 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D
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NO.5 Which two resources must be in place prior to creating a new Provider vDC? (Choose two.)
A. vCloud External Network
B. vCenter Datastore
C. vCenter Resource Pool
D. vShield Protection Group
Answer: B,C
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three.)
A. Port Mirroring
B. PVLAN tagging
C. Egress Traffic Shaping
D. Ingress Traffic Shaping
E. 802.1q VLAN Tagging
Answer: A,B,D
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A. AMQP Broker
B. vCloud Connector
C. vShield Manager
D. Oracle/MS SQL database
Answer: C,D
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A. On a vSphere Distributed Switch dvPort for inbound and/or outbound traffic
B. On a vSphere Distributed Switch for inbound and/or outbound traffic
C. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound traffic
D. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound and outbound traffic
Answer: A,B
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NO.1 An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using
over
90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer.
Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a
script? (Choose three.)
A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares
Answer: A,B,D
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NO.2 In a large organization, a user has 10 VMs deployed in vCloud Director, backed by a
Pay-As-You-
Go allocation model. The user needs to determine the charges being incurred for resource usage.
Which report type does the user need?
A. Showback Report
B. Usage Report
C. Cost Comparison Report
D. Cost Report
Answer: D
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NO.3 As a System Administrator you can disable an Organization vDC. Disabling will have which of
the
following effects? (Choose two)
A. vApps in the Org vDC that are not running cannot be powered on.
B. All vApps in the Org vDC will be shutdown.
C. Users will not be able to create or start additional vApps in that Org vDC.
D. The running vApps in the Org vDC will have their storage lease reset.
Answer: A,C
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NO.4 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D
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NO.5 Which two resources must be in place prior to creating a new Provider vDC? (Choose two.)
A. vCloud External Network
B. vCenter Datastore
C. vCenter Resource Pool
D. vShield Protection Group
Answer: B,C
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NO.6 Which three features are only available when using a vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose
three.)
A. Port Mirroring
B. PVLAN tagging
C. Egress Traffic Shaping
D. Ingress Traffic Shaping
E. 802.1q VLAN Tagging
Answer: A,B,D
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NO.7 Which two components are required for a vCloud infrastructure installation? (Choose two.)
A. AMQP Broker
B. vCloud Connector
C. vShield Manager
D. Oracle/MS SQL database
Answer: C,D
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NO.8 On which two vSphere elements can traffic shaping be configured? (Choose two.)
A. On a vSphere Distributed Switch dvPort for inbound and/or outbound traffic
B. On a vSphere Distributed Switch for inbound and/or outbound traffic
C. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound traffic
D. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound and outbound traffic
Answer: A,B
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2015年4月21日星期二
C-TSCM42-64 VCE Dumps, C_TADM51702 Braindumps
C_TSCM42_64 SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4
Solution: SAP ERP
Delivery Methods: Certification
Duration: 180
Level: Associate
Sub-solution: Corporate Governance
Component: Industry: Aerospace & Defense
Exam: 180 min - 80 questions, PDF Link, Cut Score 53
Product Group: SAP Business Suite
Languages: German, English, Japanese
The "SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4" certification exam verifies that the candidate has the required knowledge in the area of Production for the application consultant role. This certificate proves that the candidate has a basic understanding within this consultant profile, and can implement this knowledge practically in projects.
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Exam Code: C-TSCM42-64
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4
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Updated: 04-21,2015
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Exam Code: C_TADM51702
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 EhP2
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SAP C_TADM51702 Test Questions 90 Q&As
Updated: 04-21,2015
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SAP C-TSCM42-64 is a certification exam to test IT expertise and skills. If you find a job in the IT industry, many human resource managers in the interview will reference what SAP related certification you have. If you have SAP C-TSCM42-64 certification, apparently, it can improve your competitiveness.
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Solution: SAP ERP
Delivery Methods: Certification
Duration: 180
Level: Associate
Sub-solution: Corporate Governance
Component: Industry: Aerospace & Defense
Exam: 180 min - 80 questions, PDF Link, Cut Score 53
Product Group: SAP Business Suite
Languages: German, English, Japanese
The "SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4" certification exam verifies that the candidate has the required knowledge in the area of Production for the application consultant role. This certificate proves that the candidate has a basic understanding within this consultant profile, and can implement this knowledge practically in projects.
Would you like to register SAP C-TSCM42-64 certification test? Would you like to obtain C-TSCM42-64 certificate? Without having enough time to prepare for the exam, what should you do to pass your exam? In fact, there are techniques that can help. Even if you have a very difficult time preparing for the exam, you also can pass your exam successfully. How do you do that? The method is very simple, that is to use ITCertMaster SAP C-TSCM42-64 dumps to prepare for your exam.
In the recent few years, SAP C_TADM51702 exam certification have caused great impact to many people. But the key question for the future is that how to pass the SAP C_TADM51702 exam more effectively. The answer of this question is to use ITCertMaster's SAP C_TADM51702 exam training materials, and with it you can pass your exams. So what are you waiting for? Go to buy ITCertMaster's SAP C_TADM51702 exam training materials please, and with it you can get more things what you want.
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Exam Code: C-TSCM42-64
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4
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SAP C-TSCM42-64 Bootcamp 80 Q&As
Updated: 04-21,2015
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Exam Code: C_TADM51702
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 EhP2
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
SAP C_TADM51702 Test Questions 90 Q&As
Updated: 04-21,2015
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About the C_TADM51702 exam certification, reliability can not be ignored. C_TADM51702 exam training materials of ITCertMaster are specially designed. It can maximize the efficiency of your work. We are the best worldwide materials provider about this exam.
SAP C-TSCM42-64 is a certification exam to test IT expertise and skills. If you find a job in the IT industry, many human resource managers in the interview will reference what SAP related certification you have. If you have SAP C-TSCM42-64 certification, apparently, it can improve your competitiveness.
ITCertMaster provide you the product with high quality and reliability. You can free download online part of ITCertMaster's providing practice questions and answers about the SAP certification C_TADM51702 exam as a try. After your trail I believe you will be very satisfied with our product. Such a good product which can help you pass the exam successfully, what are you waiting for? Please add it to your shopping cart.
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C2020-011 Practice Exam, C2180-401 Exam Prep
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Exam Code: C2020-011
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Statistics Level 1 v2
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Exam Code: C2180-401
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5.5 and Liberty Profile, System Administration
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Test information:
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Exam Code: C2020-011
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Statistics Level 1 v2
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Updated: 04-21,2015
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Exam Code: C2180-401
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5.5 and Liberty Profile, System Administration
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Test information:
- Number of questions: 65
- Time allowed in minutes: 120
- Required passing score: 58%
- Languages: English, Japanese
- IBM Certified System Administrator - WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5.5 and Liberty Profile
- IBM Certified BPM System Administration - Business Process Manager Advanced V8.5
- IBM Certified Advanced System Administrator - Sametime 9.0
070-462 Dumps PDF, 070-687 PDF VCE, 070-331 Exam PDF
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Exam Code: 070-462
Exam Name: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases
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Updated: 04-21,2015
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Exam Code: 070-687
Exam Name: Configuring Windows 8
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Updated: 04-21,2015
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Exam Code: 070-331
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
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Updated: 04-21,2015
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NO.1 You are managing a SharePoint farm.The SharePoint databases are configured to run on a
dedicated
instance of Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1.You need to optimize query
executions.What
should you do?
A. Move the master database to a RAID 5 volume.
B. Move the master database to a RAID 10 volume.
C. Move the SharePoint databases to a RAID 5 volume.
D. Move the SharePoint databases to a RAID 10 volume.
E. Set the maximum degree of parallelism for SQL Server instances to 0.
F. Set the maximum degree of parallelism for SQL Server instances to 1.
G. Set the maximum degree of parallelism for SQL Server instances to 4.
H. Set the maximum degree of parallelism for SQL Server instances to 32.
Answer: D/F
NO.2 You plan to set up an external list to work with the existing line-of-business application in the
cloud.You
need to upload a configuration file to SharePoint Online to enable communication with the external
data.Which configuration file should you upload?
A. a Microsoft Business Data Connectivity (BDC) service model file that specifies a
LobSystemInstance
B. a comma-separated OData definition file that specifies instance permissions
C. a Microsoft Business Connectivity Services (BCS) resource file
D. a SharePoint trust configuration file that specifies permissions
Answer: A
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NO.3 You copy the content of the SharePoint installation media and software updates to your hard
drive.You
need to meet the setup requirements for future SharePoint server installations.What should you
do?
A.Upgrade the installation media by running the /lang:<lcid> command.
B.Extract the content of each file to the Updates folder by running the /extract:<path> command.
C.Extract the content of each file to the PrerequisiteInstallerFiles folder by running the
/extract:<path>
command.
D.Extract the content of each file to the Setup folder by running the /extract:<path> command.
Answer: B
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NO.4 You are the farm administrator for a single-server SharePoint 2010 Foundation
environment.The
company plans to upgrade to SharePoint 2013 Foundation.You need to ensure that the existing
server
meets the minimum requirements.Which three requirements must you meet? (Each correct answer
presents part of the solution.Choose three.)
A. 64-bit edition of SQL Server 2008
B. 64-bit processor
C. 64-bit edition of Windows Server 2008 SP2
D. 80 GB of free disk space for the system drive
E. 8 GB of RAM
Answer: B,D,E
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NO.5 You need to ensure that content authors can publish the specified files.What should you do?
A. Create one authoring site collection.Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries,
and
Pages libraries.Create an asset library in the authoring site collection, and enable anonymous access
to
the library on the authoring web application.
B. Create one authoring site collection.Create multiple sites that each contain lists, document
libraries,
and a Pages library.Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to
the
library on the publishing web application.
C. Create multiple authoring site collections.Create a site that contains multiple lists, document
libraries,
and Pages libraries.Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to
the
library on the publishing web application.
D. Create multiple authoring site collections.Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and
a
Pages library.Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the
library
on the publishing web application.
E. Create multiple authoring site collections.Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and
a
Pages library.Create an asset library in the authoring site collection, and enable anonymous access
to the
library on the authoring web application.
F. Create one authoring site collection.Create multiple sites that each contain lists, document
libraries, and a Pages library.Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous
access to the
library on the authoring web application.
G. Create one authoring site collection.Create multiple sites that each contain lists, document
libraries,
and a Pages library.Create an asset library in the authoring site collection, and enable anonymous
access
to the library on the publishing web application.
H. Create one authoring site collection.Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries,
and
Pages libraries.Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the
library on the publishing web application.
Answer: B/D
NO.6 You need to display the required web usage report(s) for the projects.contoso.com site.What
should you do?
A. In Central Administration, on an on-premise SharePoint server, navigate to the Web Analytics
reports.
B. Navigate to the site, and then replace Pages/Default.aspx in the URL with
_layouts/usagedetails.aspx.
C. Display usage reports created by using Microsoft System Center 2012 - Operations Manager.
D. Display the Unified Logging Service (ULS) logs.
Answer: B
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There are many ways to help you pass Microsoft certification 070-687 exam and selecting a good pathway is a good protection. ITCertMaster can provide you a good training tool and high-quality reference information for you to participate in the Microsoft certification 070-687 exam. ITCertMaster's practice questions and answers are based on the research of Microsoft certification 070-687 examination Outline. Therefore, the high quality and high authoritative information provided by ITCertMaster can definitely do our best to help you pass Microsoft certification 070-687 exam. ITCertMaster will continue to update the information about Microsoft certification 070-687 exam to meet your need.
IT industry is growing very rapidly in the past few years, so a lot of people start to learn IT knowledge, so that keep them for future success efforts. Microsoft 070-331 certification exam is essential certification of the IT industry, many people frustrated by this certification. Today, I will tell you a good way to pass the exam which is to choose ITCertMaster Microsoft 070-331 exam training materials. It can help you to pass the exam, and we can guarantee 100% pass rate. If you do not pass, we will guarantee to refund the full purchase cost. So you will have no losses.
God is fair, and everyone is not perfect. As we all know, the competition in the IT industry is fierce. So everyone wants to get the IT certification to enhance their value. I think so, too. But it is too difficult for me. Fortunately, I found ITCertMaster's Microsoft 070-331 exam training materials on the Internet. With it, I would not need to worry about my exam. ITCertMaster's Microsoft 070-331 exam training materials are really good. It is wide coverage, and targeted. If you are also one of the members in the IT industry, quickly add the ITCertMaster's Microsoft 070-331 exam training materials to your shoppingcart please. Do not hesitate, do not hovering. ITCertMaster's Microsoft 070-331 exam training materials are the best companion with your success.
Exam Code: 070-462
Exam Name: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Microsoft 070-462 PDF VCE 173 Q&As
Updated: 04-21,2015
070-462 Exam Questions Detail : Click Here
Exam Code: 070-687
Exam Name: Configuring Windows 8
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Microsoft 070-687 Actual Test 266 Q&As
Updated: 04-21,2015
070-687 Practice Test Detail : Click Here
Exam Code: 070-331
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Microsoft 070-331 Bootcamp 171 Q&As
Updated: 04-21,2015
070-331 Training online Detail : Click Here
The trouble can test a person's character. A bad situation can show special integrity. When to face of a difficult time, only the bravest people could take it easy. Are you a brave person? If you did not do the best preparation for your IT certification exam, can you take it easy? Yes, of course. Because you have ITCertMaster's Microsoft 070-687 exam training materials. As long as you have it, any examination do not will knock you down.
070-331 Free Demo Download: http://www.itcertmaster.com/070-331.html
NO.1 You are managing a SharePoint farm.The SharePoint databases are configured to run on a
dedicated
instance of Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1.You need to optimize query
executions.What
should you do?
A. Move the master database to a RAID 5 volume.
B. Move the master database to a RAID 10 volume.
C. Move the SharePoint databases to a RAID 5 volume.
D. Move the SharePoint databases to a RAID 10 volume.
E. Set the maximum degree of parallelism for SQL Server instances to 0.
F. Set the maximum degree of parallelism for SQL Server instances to 1.
G. Set the maximum degree of parallelism for SQL Server instances to 4.
H. Set the maximum degree of parallelism for SQL Server instances to 32.
Answer: D/F
NO.2 You plan to set up an external list to work with the existing line-of-business application in the
cloud.You
need to upload a configuration file to SharePoint Online to enable communication with the external
data.Which configuration file should you upload?
A. a Microsoft Business Data Connectivity (BDC) service model file that specifies a
LobSystemInstance
B. a comma-separated OData definition file that specifies instance permissions
C. a Microsoft Business Connectivity Services (BCS) resource file
D. a SharePoint trust configuration file that specifies permissions
Answer: A
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NO.3 You copy the content of the SharePoint installation media and software updates to your hard
drive.You
need to meet the setup requirements for future SharePoint server installations.What should you
do?
A.Upgrade the installation media by running the /lang:<lcid> command.
B.Extract the content of each file to the Updates folder by running the /extract:<path> command.
C.Extract the content of each file to the PrerequisiteInstallerFiles folder by running the
/extract:<path>
command.
D.Extract the content of each file to the Setup folder by running the /extract:<path> command.
Answer: B
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NO.4 You are the farm administrator for a single-server SharePoint 2010 Foundation
environment.The
company plans to upgrade to SharePoint 2013 Foundation.You need to ensure that the existing
server
meets the minimum requirements.Which three requirements must you meet? (Each correct answer
presents part of the solution.Choose three.)
A. 64-bit edition of SQL Server 2008
B. 64-bit processor
C. 64-bit edition of Windows Server 2008 SP2
D. 80 GB of free disk space for the system drive
E. 8 GB of RAM
Answer: B,D,E
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NO.5 You need to ensure that content authors can publish the specified files.What should you do?
A. Create one authoring site collection.Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries,
and
Pages libraries.Create an asset library in the authoring site collection, and enable anonymous access
to
the library on the authoring web application.
B. Create one authoring site collection.Create multiple sites that each contain lists, document
libraries,
and a Pages library.Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to
the
library on the publishing web application.
C. Create multiple authoring site collections.Create a site that contains multiple lists, document
libraries,
and Pages libraries.Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to
the
library on the publishing web application.
D. Create multiple authoring site collections.Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and
a
Pages library.Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the
library
on the publishing web application.
E. Create multiple authoring site collections.Create a site that contains lists, document libraries, and
a
Pages library.Create an asset library in the authoring site collection, and enable anonymous access
to the
library on the authoring web application.
F. Create one authoring site collection.Create multiple sites that each contain lists, document
libraries, and a Pages library.Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous
access to the
library on the authoring web application.
G. Create one authoring site collection.Create multiple sites that each contain lists, document
libraries,
and a Pages library.Create an asset library in the authoring site collection, and enable anonymous
access
to the library on the publishing web application.
H. Create one authoring site collection.Create a site that contains multiple lists, document libraries,
and
Pages libraries.Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable anonymous access to the
library on the publishing web application.
Answer: B/D
NO.6 You need to display the required web usage report(s) for the projects.contoso.com site.What
should you do?
A. In Central Administration, on an on-premise SharePoint server, navigate to the Web Analytics
reports.
B. Navigate to the site, and then replace Pages/Default.aspx in the URL with
_layouts/usagedetails.aspx.
C. Display usage reports created by using Microsoft System Center 2012 - Operations Manager.
D. Display the Unified Logging Service (ULS) logs.
Answer: B
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C4040-332 Exam Prep, C2210-923 Dumps PDF, C2210-928 Real Questions
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2015年4月20日星期一
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Number of correct answers: 2
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B. Review tool
C. Coverage measurement tool
D. Monitoring
E. Test management
Answer: A,C
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Number of correct answers: 1
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B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing
D. User Acceptance Testing
Answer: C
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NO.8 What is the number of nested levels for the code fragment? 2 credits [K3]
Number of correct answers: 1
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B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
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NO.1 Which TWO additional structure-based test design techniques could be used to dynamically test
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Number of correct answers: 2
A. Condition testing
B. Multiple condition testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Cause/effect graphing
E. Code reviews
Answer: A,B
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NO.2 It has been suggested to organise a performance test to find out more regarding the third risk.
Which of the following would you use to quantify the situation and as a basis for defining a
performance exit criteria? 2 credits [K3]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Defect analysis time
B. Change parameter success ratio
C. Number of errors made by the user
D. Time to perform the function
Answer: D
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NO.3 Which TWO of the following artefacts can be useful as a test oracle the first time a test case is
run? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Incident report
B. Requirements Specification
C. Test summary report
D. Legacy system
E. Test plan
Answer: B,D
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NO.4 To support code reviews a checklist will be developed. Which TWO questions from the list
would you implement as part of the code review checklist? 3 credits [K3]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Are any magic numbers (numeric literals) used, other than 0 or 1?
B. Can each item be implemented with the techniques, tools, and resources available?
C. Is it possible during acceptance testing to verify whether the item has been satisfied?
D. Is the item specified in an exact, unambiguous way?
E. Is there any logic containing no statements and no explanation as to why it is empty?
Answer: A,E
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system shows the following risk matrix:
The project wants to mitigate the risks by defining different types of coverage depending on the risk
level of the components. Which of the following would be a meaningful solution for setting the
coverage targets?2 credits [K3]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Decision Coverage, III: Statement coverage
B. I: Condition determination coverage, II: Statement coverage, III: Decision coverage
C. I: Decision coverage, II: Condition determination coverage, III: Statement Coverage
D. I: Multiple condition coverage, II: Decision coverage, III: Condition determination coverage
Answer: A
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NO.6 It has been decided to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of unit testing by acquiring a
number of test tools. Which TWO of the following tools would you select to support unit testing? 1
credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 2
A. Dynamic analysis
B. Review tool
C. Coverage measurement tool
D. Monitoring
E. Test management
Answer: A,C
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Topic 5, Testing of Software Characteristics
NO.7 At which test level would performance testing most likely be performed? 1 credit [K2]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. Component Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing
D. User Acceptance Testing
Answer: C
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NO.8 What is the number of nested levels for the code fragment? 2 credits [K3]
Number of correct answers: 1
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
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NO.1 A vSphere administrator is attempting to migrate a virtual machine, but the progress bar for the
migration remains at 10%.
Which issue could be preventing the vMotion migration?
A. A networking problem between the source and destination hosts exists at the physical layer.
B. The virtual machine is not on shared storage visible to the source and destination hosts.
C. The vMotion migration priority for this migration was set to High.
D. The vMotion network is saturated.
Answer: A
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NO.2 -- Exhibit -
-- Exhibit -
An administrator receives notice of a large number of ARP table issues. The issues began after a
maintenance window 36 hours ago. The issue did not exist prior to the maintenance window.
Which change was made to the port group that is causing the ARP table issue?
A. Notify Switches was changed to No.
B. Uplink 2 was changed from Standby to Active.
C. Failback was changed to Yes.
D. Network failure detection was changed to Link status only.
Answer: A
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NO.3 What should an administrator do to configure multi-pathing using software iSCSI?
A. Bind the VMkernel ports to the software iSCSI initiator
B. Configure Zoning between the hosts and SAN switches
C. Configure NIC teaming on the associated uplinks
D. Ensure jumbo frames are enabled end-to-end
Answer: A
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NO.4 A vSphere administrator manages a three host cluster with 20 VMs. The HA cluster is
configured with the Host Failures the Cluster Tolerates admission control policy and all other settings
are set to default values. The administrator determines that one of the VMs is not able to power on.
After further inspection, it is determined that this VM cannot power on because of a very large CPU
reservation.
Which cluster advanced HA setting can the administrator modify to enable the virtual machine to
power on?
A. Lower das.vmcpumaxmhz attribute value
B. Higher das.vmcpuminmhz attribute value
C. Lower das.slotcpuoutmhz attribute value
D. Higher das.slotcpuinmhz attribute value
Answer: D
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NO.5 What is a valid plug-in status for a plug-in that has been added to a vSphere client?
A. Disabled
B. Unknown
C. Stopped
D. Installed
Answer: A
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NO.6 A VMware administrator determines that a low priority virtual machine is negatively affecting
the disk I/O performance of a higher priority virtual machine. The virtual machines are hosted on the
same datastore presented to the same ESXi host.
Which configuration option should the VMware administrator use to resolve this issue?
A. Increase the disk share value for the high priority VM.
B. Migrate the low priority VM to another ESXi host.
C. Create a Storage Profile for each priority level.
D. Enable vSphere APIs for Array Integration (VAAI).
Answer: A
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NO.7 An administrator is migrating 135 virtual machines from a vSphere Standard Switch to a
vSphere Distributed switch. The migration reports an error and only some of the virtual machines are
transferred.
What is causing the error to occur?
A. The vSphere Distributed Switch was created with a single, default port group.
B. The switch has become disconnected from an ESXi host.
C. The port group on the vSphere Distributed Switch was not configured with an Elastic port binding.
D. The virtual machine that failed to transfer did not have a network adapter.
Answer: A
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Topic 3, Plan and Configure vSphere Storage
NO.8 An administrator is installing ESXi on several hosts attached to iSCSI storage.
Why would the administrator detach the host from the IP storage network prior to installation?
A. It decreases the time the installer needs to search for available disk drives.
B. It allows the installation of a generic VAAI component for IP storage.
C. It prevents ESXi from installing vSphere Flash Cache to the IP storage.
D. It is required when installing ESXi onto a physical server that utilizes IP storage.
Answer: A
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NO.1 A vSphere administrator is attempting to migrate a virtual machine, but the progress bar for the
migration remains at 10%.
Which issue could be preventing the vMotion migration?
A. A networking problem between the source and destination hosts exists at the physical layer.
B. The virtual machine is not on shared storage visible to the source and destination hosts.
C. The vMotion migration priority for this migration was set to High.
D. The vMotion network is saturated.
Answer: A
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NO.2 -- Exhibit -
-- Exhibit -
An administrator receives notice of a large number of ARP table issues. The issues began after a
maintenance window 36 hours ago. The issue did not exist prior to the maintenance window.
Which change was made to the port group that is causing the ARP table issue?
A. Notify Switches was changed to No.
B. Uplink 2 was changed from Standby to Active.
C. Failback was changed to Yes.
D. Network failure detection was changed to Link status only.
Answer: A
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NO.3 What should an administrator do to configure multi-pathing using software iSCSI?
A. Bind the VMkernel ports to the software iSCSI initiator
B. Configure Zoning between the hosts and SAN switches
C. Configure NIC teaming on the associated uplinks
D. Ensure jumbo frames are enabled end-to-end
Answer: A
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NO.4 A vSphere administrator manages a three host cluster with 20 VMs. The HA cluster is
configured with the Host Failures the Cluster Tolerates admission control policy and all other settings
are set to default values. The administrator determines that one of the VMs is not able to power on.
After further inspection, it is determined that this VM cannot power on because of a very large CPU
reservation.
Which cluster advanced HA setting can the administrator modify to enable the virtual machine to
power on?
A. Lower das.vmcpumaxmhz attribute value
B. Higher das.vmcpuminmhz attribute value
C. Lower das.slotcpuoutmhz attribute value
D. Higher das.slotcpuinmhz attribute value
Answer: D
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NO.5 What is a valid plug-in status for a plug-in that has been added to a vSphere client?
A. Disabled
B. Unknown
C. Stopped
D. Installed
Answer: A
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NO.6 A VMware administrator determines that a low priority virtual machine is negatively affecting
the disk I/O performance of a higher priority virtual machine. The virtual machines are hosted on the
same datastore presented to the same ESXi host.
Which configuration option should the VMware administrator use to resolve this issue?
A. Increase the disk share value for the high priority VM.
B. Migrate the low priority VM to another ESXi host.
C. Create a Storage Profile for each priority level.
D. Enable vSphere APIs for Array Integration (VAAI).
Answer: A
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NO.7 An administrator is migrating 135 virtual machines from a vSphere Standard Switch to a
vSphere Distributed switch. The migration reports an error and only some of the virtual machines are
transferred.
What is causing the error to occur?
A. The vSphere Distributed Switch was created with a single, default port group.
B. The switch has become disconnected from an ESXi host.
C. The port group on the vSphere Distributed Switch was not configured with an Elastic port binding.
D. The virtual machine that failed to transfer did not have a network adapter.
Answer: A
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Topic 3, Plan and Configure vSphere Storage
NO.8 An administrator is installing ESXi on several hosts attached to iSCSI storage.
Why would the administrator detach the host from the IP storage network prior to installation?
A. It decreases the time the installer needs to search for available disk drives.
B. It allows the installation of a generic VAAI component for IP storage.
C. It prevents ESXi from installing vSphere Flash Cache to the IP storage.
D. It is required when installing ESXi onto a physical server that utilizes IP storage.
Answer: A
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NO.1 Which role does NOT set tolerances?
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B. Project Board
C. Change Authority
D. Project Manager
Answer: C
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NO.2 What product forms the contract' between the Project Board and the Project Manager?
A. Project Brief
B. Project Initiation Documentation
C. Project mandate
D. Project Plan
Answer: B
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NO.3 Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?
A. Assign work to be done and take corrective action to ensure that the stage remains within
tolerance
B. Provide a fixed reference point at which acceptance for the project product is confirmed
C. Enable the Project Board to be provided with sufficient information to authorize the next stage
D. Enable the organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's
products
Answer: A
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Following initiation, the Controlling a Stage process is used to manage and control each [ ? ] of a
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A. technical stage
B. benefit
C. management stage
D. Team Plan
Answer: C
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NO.5 In which product would you find a product's quality tolerance defined?
A. Product Description
B. Quality Management Strategy
C. Quality Register
D. Configuration Item Record
Answer: A
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NO.6 Identify the missing word in the following sentence, A purpose of the [?] theme is to control
any unacceptable deviations from the project's objectives.
A. Change
B. Plans
C. Progress
D. Risk
Answer: C
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NO.7 How many tasks does the product-based planning technique describe?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: D
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NO.8 Which is an objective of the Starting up a Project process?
A. Identify who will be responsible for creating the Project Plan
B. Agree how the project will be monitored and controlled after initiation
C. Authorize the Project Manager to proceed with the initiation stage
D. Agree how issues and changes will be identified, assessed and controlled
Answer: A
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NO.1 Which role does NOT set tolerances?
A. Corporate or programme management
B. Project Board
C. Change Authority
D. Project Manager
Answer: C
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NO.2 What product forms the contract' between the Project Board and the Project Manager?
A. Project Brief
B. Project Initiation Documentation
C. Project mandate
D. Project Plan
Answer: B
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NO.3 Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?
A. Assign work to be done and take corrective action to ensure that the stage remains within
tolerance
B. Provide a fixed reference point at which acceptance for the project product is confirmed
C. Enable the Project Board to be provided with sufficient information to authorize the next stage
D. Enable the organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's
products
Answer: A
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NO.4 Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
Following initiation, the Controlling a Stage process is used to manage and control each [ ? ] of a
project.
A. technical stage
B. benefit
C. management stage
D. Team Plan
Answer: C
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NO.5 In which product would you find a product's quality tolerance defined?
A. Product Description
B. Quality Management Strategy
C. Quality Register
D. Configuration Item Record
Answer: A
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NO.6 Identify the missing word in the following sentence, A purpose of the [?] theme is to control
any unacceptable deviations from the project's objectives.
A. Change
B. Plans
C. Progress
D. Risk
Answer: C
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NO.7 How many tasks does the product-based planning technique describe?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: D
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NO.8 Which is an objective of the Starting up a Project process?
A. Identify who will be responsible for creating the Project Plan
B. Agree how the project will be monitored and controlled after initiation
C. Authorize the Project Manager to proceed with the initiation stage
D. Agree how issues and changes will be identified, assessed and controlled
Answer: A
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Test information:
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We all well know the status of Symantec certification 250-407 exams in the IT area is a pivotal position, but the key question is to be able to get Symantec 250-407 certification is not very simple. We know very clearly about the lack of high-quality and high accuracy exam materials online. Exam practice questions and answers ITCertMaster provide for all people to participate in the IT industry certification exam supply all the necessary information. Besides, it can all the time provide what you want. Buying all our information can guarantee you to pass your first Symantec certification 250-407 exam.
Exam Code: 250-319
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 11.x
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Symantec 250-319 PDF VCE 134 Q&As
Updated: 04-20,2015
250-319 Exam Dumps Detail : Click Here
Exam Code: 250-407
Exam Name: Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Symantec 250-407 VCE Dumps 140 Q&As
Updated: 04-20,2015
250-407 Real Questions Detail : Click Here
IT certification candidates are mostly working people. Therefore, most of the candidates did not have so much time to prepare for the exam. But they need a lot of time to participate in the certification exam training courses. This will not only lead to a waste of training costs, more importantly, the candidates wasted valuable time. Here, I recommend a good learning materials website. Some of the test data on the site is free, but more importantly is that it provides a realistic simulation exercises that can help you to pass the Symantec 250-407 exam.
ITCertMaster Symantec 250-407 exammaterials can not only help you save a lot of time. but also allows you to pass the exam successfully. So you have no reason not to choose it.
You have seen ITCertMaster's Symantec 250-319 exam training materials, it is time to make a choice. You can choose other products, but you have to know that ITCertMaster can bring you infinite interests. Only ITCertMaster can guarantee you 100% success. ITCertMaster allows you to have a bright future. And allows you to work in the field of information technology with high efficiency.
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This program consists of a technical exam at a product/version level that validates that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills in four major areas: 1) Product Overview & Architecture; 2) Installation & Configuration; 3) Management & Reporting; and, 4) Basic Troubleshooting.
Exam 250-407 Details
Number of Questions: 70 - 80
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Passing Score: 70%
Languages: English
More and more people choose Symantec 250-407 exam. Because of its popularity, you can use the ITCertMaster Symantec 250-407 exam questions and answers to pass the exam. This will bring you great convenience and comfort. This is a practice test website. It is available on the Internet with the exam questions and answers, as we all know, ITCertMaster is the professional website which provide Symantec 250-407 exam questions and answers.
We all well know the status of Symantec certification 250-407 exams in the IT area is a pivotal position, but the key question is to be able to get Symantec 250-407 certification is not very simple. We know very clearly about the lack of high-quality and high accuracy exam materials online. Exam practice questions and answers ITCertMaster provide for all people to participate in the IT industry certification exam supply all the necessary information. Besides, it can all the time provide what you want. Buying all our information can guarantee you to pass your first Symantec certification 250-407 exam.
Exam Code: 250-319
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 11.x
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Symantec 250-319 PDF VCE 134 Q&As
Updated: 04-20,2015
250-319 Exam Dumps Detail : Click Here
Exam Code: 250-407
Exam Name: Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Symantec 250-407 VCE Dumps 140 Q&As
Updated: 04-20,2015
250-407 Real Questions Detail : Click Here
IT certification candidates are mostly working people. Therefore, most of the candidates did not have so much time to prepare for the exam. But they need a lot of time to participate in the certification exam training courses. This will not only lead to a waste of training costs, more importantly, the candidates wasted valuable time. Here, I recommend a good learning materials website. Some of the test data on the site is free, but more importantly is that it provides a realistic simulation exercises that can help you to pass the Symantec 250-407 exam.
ITCertMaster Symantec 250-407 exammaterials can not only help you save a lot of time. but also allows you to pass the exam successfully. So you have no reason not to choose it.
You have seen ITCertMaster's Symantec 250-319 exam training materials, it is time to make a choice. You can choose other products, but you have to know that ITCertMaster can bring you infinite interests. Only ITCertMaster can guarantee you 100% success. ITCertMaster allows you to have a bright future. And allows you to work in the field of information technology with high efficiency.
250-407 Free Demo Download: http://www.itcertmaster.com/250-407.html
This program consists of a technical exam at a product/version level that validates that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills in four major areas: 1) Product Overview & Architecture; 2) Installation & Configuration; 3) Management & Reporting; and, 4) Basic Troubleshooting.
Exam 250-407 Details
Number of Questions: 70 - 80
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Passing Score: 70%
Languages: English
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