2015年11月5日星期四

CISSP best ISC certification exam questions and answers free download

NO.1 What is the MOST important step in business continuity planning?
A. Risk Assessment
B. Due Care
C. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
D. Due Diligence
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which access control model is also called Non Discretionary Access Control (NDAC)?
A. Lattice based access control
B. Mandatory access control
C. Role-based access control
D. Label-based access control
Answer: C

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NO.3 Compared to RSA, which of the following is true of Elliptic Curve Cryptography(ECC)?
A. It has been mathematically proved to be more secure.
B. It has been mathematically proved to be less secure.
C. It is believed to require longer key for equivalent security.
D. It is believed to require shorter keys for equivalent security.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The answer: It

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is believed to require shorter keys for equivalent security. Some
experts believe that ECC with key length 160 bits is equivalent to RSA with key length 1024 bits.
The following answers are incorrect: It has been mathematically proved to be less secure. ECC
has not been proved to be more or less secure than RSA. Since ECC is newer than RSA, it is
considered riskier by some, but that is just a general assessment, not based on mathematical
arguments.
It has been mathematically proved to be more secure. ECC has not been proved to be more or
less secure than RSA. Since ECC is newer than RSA, it is considered riskier by some, but that is
just a general assessment, not based on mathematical arguments.
It is believed to require longer key for equivalent security. On the contrary, it is believed to require
shorter keys for equivalent security of RSA.
Shon Harris, AIO v5 pg719 states:
"In most cases, the longer the key, the more protection that is provided, but ECC can provide the
same level of protection with a key size that is shorter that what RSA requires"
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
ISC2 OIG, 2007 p. 258
Shon Harris, AIO v5 pg719

NO.4 Complete the following sentence. A digital signature is a ____
A. hash value that has been encrypted with the senders private key
B. hash value that has been encrypted with the senders public key
C. hash value that has been encrypted with the senders Session key
D. it is senders signature signed and scanned in a digital format
Answer: A

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NO.5 What can be defined as secret communications where the very existence of the message is
hidden?
A. Clustering
B. Steganography
C. Cryptology
D. Vernam cipher
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Steganography is a secret communication where the very existence of the message is hidden. For
example, in a digital image, the least significant bit of each word can be used to comprise a message
without causing any significant change in the image. Key clustering is a situation in which a plaintext
message generates identical ciphertext messages using the same transformation algorithm but with
different keys. Cryptology encompasses cryptography and cryptanalysis. The Vernam Cipher, also
called a one-time pad, is an encryption scheme using a random key of the same size as the message
and is used only once. It is said to be unbreakable, even with infinite resources. Source: KRUTZ,
Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 134).

NO.6 Proxies works by transferring a copy of each accepted data packet from one network to
another, thereby masking the:
A. data's payload.
B. data's details.
C. data's owner.
D. data's origin.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) is a discipline that:
A. Outlines how the proper design of a physical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting
human behavior.
B. Outlines how the proper design of the logical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting
human behavior.
C. Outlines how the proper design of the detective control environment can reduce crime by directly
affecting human behavior.
D. Outlines how the proper design of the administrative control environment can reduce crime by
directly affecting human behavior.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Why do buffer overflows happen? What is the main cause?
A. Because buffers can only hold so much data
B. Because of improper parameter checking within the application
C. Because they are an easy weakness to exploit
D. Because of insufficient system memory
Answer: B

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NS0-145 Test Questions, NS0-157 Real Dumps

NO.1 CIFS SMB 2.0 is a stateful protocol. What maintains a history of connection activities?
A. The application
B. The server only
C. The client and the server
D. The domain controller
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two are functions of multipathing software? (Choose two.)
A. Mirroring Port IO
B. Path health monitoring
C. Load balancing
D. RAID reconstruction after a failure
E. Monitoring fiber optical signal quality
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 When creating a flexible volume, which attribute determines the volume's position in the
namespace?
A. Aggregate
B. SVM
C. Junction path
D. Export policy
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Volumes are associated with one Storage Virtual Machine (SVM).The SVM is a virtual
managemententity, or server, that consolidates various cluster resources into a single manageable
unit. When youcreate a volume, you specify the SVM it is associated with. The type of the volume
(FlexVol volumeor Infinite Volume) is determined by an immutable SVM attribute.
Volumes have a language. The language of the volume determines the character set Data ONTAPuses
to display file names and data for that volume. The default value for the language of the volumeis the
language of the SVM.
Volumes depend on their associated aggregates for their physical storage; they are not
directlyassociated with any concrete storage objects, such as disks or RAID groups. If the
clusteradministrator has assigned specific aggregates to an SVM, then only those aggregates can be
used toprovide storage to the volumes associated with that SVM. This impacts volume creation, and
alsocopying and moving FlexVol volumes between aggregates.

NO.4 When viewing the output of the sysstat -f 1 command, which three fields are part of the total
number of operations per second? (Choose three.)
A. CIFS
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. FCP
E. SnapMirror
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Before running lun setup on the storage system, you must first create the igroup to which the
initiator will be attached.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two functions of the Flash Translation Layer? (Choose two.)
A. It mirrors writes to the alternate controller.
B. It maps pages to logical blocks.
C. It manages component wear.
D. It supports high availability.
E. It defines the write cliff.
Answer: B,C

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Reference:http://drona.csa.iisc.ernet.in/~gopi/west10/goodson.pdf(page 1&2)

NO.7 CIFS clients can resolve symbolic links created by NFS clients on the storage system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two statements are TRUE of moving a volume? (Choose two)
A. All writes from an NFS client to the volume continue
B. The Snapshot copies of the volume are orphaned and then deleted
C. The volume's position in the namespace is unaffected
D. All NAS protocol writes to the volume are interrupted
Answer: A,C

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HP0-Y49 exam study guide

Applying HP FlexNetwork Fundamentals

HP ExpertOne

Exam ID HP0-Y49
Exam type Proctored exam taken at dedicated testing center
Exam duration 1 hour 55 minutes
Exam length 58 questions
Passing score 65%
Delivery languages English, Japanese
Related Certifications
NO.1 Which HP ProVision switch command could a network administrator use to upgrade the
operating system from an attached USB drive?
A. Update from usb flash
B. Copy usb flash
C. File-management usb
D. Upgrade usb flash
Answer: B

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NO.2 The HP Virtual Connect (VC) product is found within which HP FlexNetwork Architecture
component?
A. FlexBranch
B. FlexFabric
C. FlexManagement
D. FlexCampus
Answer: B

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Reference: http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-8174ENW.pdf

NO.3 Which wireless technology is limited to operate in a frequency range with only three non-
overlapping channels?
A. 802.1a
B. 802.1x
C. 802.1ad
D. 802.11g
Answer: D

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Explanation:
802.11b (and 802.11g) networks offer 11 channels, but only three channels (1, 6, and 11) do not
overlap with each other. In a large-scale building or campus-wide installation, the ability to useonly
three channels can reduce real-world throughput and make avoiding interference from other
802.11b or 802.11g-based wireless networks difficult.

NO.4 Which STP protection feature does HP recommended against rogue switches?
A. Root Protection should be enabled on access layer switches.
B. BPDU Protection should be enabled on edge ports and uplink ports.
C. Root Protection should be enabled on access and aggregation layer switches.
D. BPDU Protection should be enabled on edge ports.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
We want to enable BPDU protection on any "edge ports", or ports that are connected to end user
devices (PCs, printers, etc.) - any device that should not be sending out STP BPDU's. Without BPDU
protection, a malicious (or ignorant) user could plug a switch into our network and alter the spanning
tree topology.

NO.5 Which ProVision configuration includes 10.0.3.0/24, which represents VLAN 30 in OSPF area 0
?
A. vlan 30 ip ospf area 0
B. vlan 30 area 0
C. interface vlan 30 ip ospf area 0
D. router ospf area 0 vlan 30
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the most Fault Tolerant IRF stack topology?
A. Cluster
B. Daisy Chain
C. Ring
D. Full Mesh
Answer: D

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
Exhibit: Network topology and configuration Originally, all four switches had the same region
configuration. VLAN 14 was added to Switch_D and then mapped to instance 2. How does this affect
the MSTP topology?
A. Load sharing is lost, one of the uplinks is blocked for all traffic on Switch_C and Switch_D
B. A layer 2 loop exists and will cause sporadic connectivity issues
C. All connectivity is lost, both uplinks are blocked on Switch_D
D. Load sharing is lost, one of the uplinks is blocked for all traffic on Switch_D
Answer: C

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NO.8 Two routers are connected on a link and begin to form an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
adjacency. What must match on both routers for the adjacency to form successfully?
A. OSPF cost on the interface
B. OSPF DR priority on the interface
C. OSPF hello timer on the interface
D. OSPF process ID for the network on the interface
Answer: C

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