NO.1 What is the MOST important step in business continuity planning?
A.
Risk Assessment
B. Due Care
C. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
D. Due
Diligence
Answer: C
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NO.2 Which access
control model is also called Non Discretionary Access Control (NDAC)?
A.
Lattice based access control
B. Mandatory access control
C. Role-based
access control
D. Label-based access control
Answer:
C
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NO.3
Compared to RSA, which of the following is true of Elliptic Curve
Cryptography(ECC)?
A. It has been mathematically proved to be more
secure.
B. It has been mathematically proved to be less secure.
C. It is
believed to require longer key for equivalent security.
D. It is believed to
require shorter keys for equivalent security.
Answer: D
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is believed to
require shorter keys for equivalent security. Some
experts believe that ECC
with key length 160 bits is equivalent to RSA with key length 1024 bits.
The
following answers are incorrect: It has been mathematically proved to be less
secure. ECC
has not been proved to be more or less secure than RSA. Since ECC
is newer than RSA, it is
considered riskier by some, but that is just a
general assessment, not based on mathematical
arguments.
It has been
mathematically proved to be more secure. ECC has not been proved to be more
or
less secure than RSA. Since ECC is newer than RSA, it is considered
riskier by some, but that is
just a general assessment, not based on
mathematical arguments.
It is believed to require longer key for equivalent
security. On the contrary, it is believed to require
shorter keys for
equivalent security of RSA.
Shon Harris, AIO v5 pg719 states:
"In most
cases, the longer the key, the more protection that is provided, but ECC can
provide the
same level of protection with a key size that is shorter that
what RSA requires"
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this
question:
ISC2 OIG, 2007 p. 258
Shon Harris, AIO v5 pg719
NO.4
Complete the following sentence. A digital signature is a ____
A. hash value
that has been encrypted with the senders private key
B. hash value that has
been encrypted with the senders public key
C. hash value that has been
encrypted with the senders Session key
D. it is senders signature signed and
scanned in a digital format
Answer: A
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NO.5 What can be
defined as secret communications where the very existence of the message
is
hidden?
A. Clustering
B. Steganography
C. Cryptology
D. Vernam
cipher
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Steganography is a secret communication where
the very existence of the message is hidden. For
example, in a digital image,
the least significant bit of each word can be used to comprise a
message
without causing any significant change in the image. Key clustering
is a situation in which a plaintext
message generates identical ciphertext
messages using the same transformation algorithm but with
different keys.
Cryptology encompasses cryptography and cryptanalysis. The Vernam Cipher,
also
called a one-time pad, is an encryption scheme using a random key of the
same size as the message
and is used only once. It is said to be unbreakable,
even with infinite resources. Source: KRUTZ,
Ronald L. & VINES, Russel
D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security,
John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 134).
NO.6
Proxies works by transferring a copy of each accepted data packet from one
network to
another, thereby masking the:
A. data's payload.
B. data's
details.
C. data's owner.
D. data's origin.
Answer:
D
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NO.7 Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED)
is a discipline that:
A. Outlines how the proper design of a physical
environment can reduce crime by directly affecting
human behavior.
B.
Outlines how the proper design of the logical environment can reduce crime by
directly affecting
human behavior.
C. Outlines how the proper design of
the detective control environment can reduce crime by directly
affecting
human behavior.
D. Outlines how the proper design of the administrative
control environment can reduce crime by
directly affecting human
behavior.
Answer: A
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NO.8 Why do buffer overflows happen? What is the main
cause?
A. Because buffers can only hold so much data
B. Because of
improper parameter checking within the application
C. Because they are an
easy weakness to exploit
D. Because of insufficient system memory
Answer:
B
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2015年11月5日星期四
NS0-145 Test Questions, NS0-157 Real Dumps
NO.1 CIFS SMB 2.0 is a stateful protocol. What maintains a history of
connection activities?
A. The application
B. The server only
C. The client and the server
D. The domain controller
Answer: D
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NO.2 Which two are functions of multipathing software? (Choose two.)
A. Mirroring Port IO
B. Path health monitoring
C. Load balancing
D. RAID reconstruction after a failure
E. Monitoring fiber optical signal quality
Answer: A,C
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NO.3 When creating a flexible volume, which attribute determines the volume's position in the
namespace?
A. Aggregate
B. SVM
C. Junction path
D. Export policy
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Volumes are associated with one Storage Virtual Machine (SVM).The SVM is a virtual
managemententity, or server, that consolidates various cluster resources into a single manageable
unit. When youcreate a volume, you specify the SVM it is associated with. The type of the volume
(FlexVol volumeor Infinite Volume) is determined by an immutable SVM attribute.
Volumes have a language. The language of the volume determines the character set Data ONTAPuses
to display file names and data for that volume. The default value for the language of the volumeis the
language of the SVM.
Volumes depend on their associated aggregates for their physical storage; they are not
directlyassociated with any concrete storage objects, such as disks or RAID groups. If the
clusteradministrator has assigned specific aggregates to an SVM, then only those aggregates can be
used toprovide storage to the volumes associated with that SVM. This impacts volume creation, and
alsocopying and moving FlexVol volumes between aggregates.
NO.4 When viewing the output of the sysstat -f 1 command, which three fields are part of the total
number of operations per second? (Choose three.)
A. CIFS
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. FCP
E. SnapMirror
Answer: A,C,D
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NO.5 Before running lun setup on the storage system, you must first create the igroup to which the
initiator will be attached.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
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NO.6 What are two functions of the Flash Translation Layer? (Choose two.)
A. It mirrors writes to the alternate controller.
B. It maps pages to logical blocks.
C. It manages component wear.
D. It supports high availability.
E. It defines the write cliff.
Answer: B,C
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Reference:http://drona.csa.iisc.ernet.in/~gopi/west10/goodson.pdf(page 1&2)
NO.7 CIFS clients can resolve symbolic links created by NFS clients on the storage system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
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NO.8 Which two statements are TRUE of moving a volume? (Choose two)
A. All writes from an NFS client to the volume continue
B. The Snapshot copies of the volume are orphaned and then deleted
C. The volume's position in the namespace is unaffected
D. All NAS protocol writes to the volume are interrupted
Answer: A,C
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A. The application
B. The server only
C. The client and the server
D. The domain controller
Answer: D
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NO.2 Which two are functions of multipathing software? (Choose two.)
A. Mirroring Port IO
B. Path health monitoring
C. Load balancing
D. RAID reconstruction after a failure
E. Monitoring fiber optical signal quality
Answer: A,C
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NO.3 When creating a flexible volume, which attribute determines the volume's position in the
namespace?
A. Aggregate
B. SVM
C. Junction path
D. Export policy
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Volumes are associated with one Storage Virtual Machine (SVM).The SVM is a virtual
managemententity, or server, that consolidates various cluster resources into a single manageable
unit. When youcreate a volume, you specify the SVM it is associated with. The type of the volume
(FlexVol volumeor Infinite Volume) is determined by an immutable SVM attribute.
Volumes have a language. The language of the volume determines the character set Data ONTAPuses
to display file names and data for that volume. The default value for the language of the volumeis the
language of the SVM.
Volumes depend on their associated aggregates for their physical storage; they are not
directlyassociated with any concrete storage objects, such as disks or RAID groups. If the
clusteradministrator has assigned specific aggregates to an SVM, then only those aggregates can be
used toprovide storage to the volumes associated with that SVM. This impacts volume creation, and
alsocopying and moving FlexVol volumes between aggregates.
NO.4 When viewing the output of the sysstat -f 1 command, which three fields are part of the total
number of operations per second? (Choose three.)
A. CIFS
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. FCP
E. SnapMirror
Answer: A,C,D
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NO.5 Before running lun setup on the storage system, you must first create the igroup to which the
initiator will be attached.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
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NO.6 What are two functions of the Flash Translation Layer? (Choose two.)
A. It mirrors writes to the alternate controller.
B. It maps pages to logical blocks.
C. It manages component wear.
D. It supports high availability.
E. It defines the write cliff.
Answer: B,C
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Reference:http://drona.csa.iisc.ernet.in/~gopi/west10/goodson.pdf(page 1&2)
NO.7 CIFS clients can resolve symbolic links created by NFS clients on the storage system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
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NO.8 Which two statements are TRUE of moving a volume? (Choose two)
A. All writes from an NFS client to the volume continue
B. The Snapshot copies of the volume are orphaned and then deleted
C. The volume's position in the namespace is unaffected
D. All NAS protocol writes to the volume are interrupted
Answer: A,C
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HP0-Y49 exam study guide
Applying HP FlexNetwork Fundamentals
HP ExpertOne
| Exam ID | HP0-Y49 |
| Exam type | Proctored exam taken at dedicated testing center |
| Exam duration | 1 hour 55 minutes |
| Exam length | 58 questions |
| Passing score | 65% |
| Delivery languages | English, Japanese |
| Related Certifications |
operating system from an attached USB drive?
A. Update from usb flash
B. Copy usb flash
C. File-management usb
D. Upgrade usb flash
Answer: B
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NO.2 The HP Virtual Connect (VC) product is found within which HP FlexNetwork Architecture
component?
A. FlexBranch
B. FlexFabric
C. FlexManagement
D. FlexCampus
Answer: B
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NO.3 Which wireless technology is limited to operate in a frequency range with only three non-
overlapping channels?
A. 802.1a
B. 802.1x
C. 802.1ad
D. 802.11g
Answer: D
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Explanation:
802.11b (and 802.11g) networks offer 11 channels, but only three channels (1, 6, and 11) do not
overlap with each other. In a large-scale building or campus-wide installation, the ability to useonly
three channels can reduce real-world throughput and make avoiding interference from other
802.11b or 802.11g-based wireless networks difficult.
NO.4 Which STP protection feature does HP recommended against rogue switches?
A. Root Protection should be enabled on access layer switches.
B. BPDU Protection should be enabled on edge ports and uplink ports.
C. Root Protection should be enabled on access and aggregation layer switches.
D. BPDU Protection should be enabled on edge ports.
Answer: D
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protection, a malicious (or ignorant) user could plug a switch into our network and alter the spanning
tree topology.
NO.5 Which ProVision configuration includes 10.0.3.0/24, which represents VLAN 30 in OSPF area 0
?
A. vlan 30 ip ospf area 0
B. vlan 30 area 0
C. interface vlan 30 ip ospf area 0
D. router ospf area 0 vlan 30
Answer: A
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NO.6 What is the most Fault Tolerant IRF stack topology?
A. Cluster
B. Daisy Chain
C. Ring
D. Full Mesh
Answer: D
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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
Exhibit: Network topology and configuration Originally, all four switches had the same region
configuration. VLAN 14 was added to Switch_D and then mapped to instance 2. How does this affect
the MSTP topology?
A. Load sharing is lost, one of the uplinks is blocked for all traffic on Switch_C and Switch_D
B. A layer 2 loop exists and will cause sporadic connectivity issues
C. All connectivity is lost, both uplinks are blocked on Switch_D
D. Load sharing is lost, one of the uplinks is blocked for all traffic on Switch_D
Answer: C
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NO.8 Two routers are connected on a link and begin to form an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
adjacency. What must match on both routers for the adjacency to form successfully?
A. OSPF cost on the interface
B. OSPF DR priority on the interface
C. OSPF hello timer on the interface
D. OSPF process ID for the network on the interface
Answer: C
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2015年10月29日星期四
642-980 VCE Dumps, 642-035 Study Guide
Troubleshooting Cisco Unified Computing
| Exam Number | 642-035 DCUCT |
|---|---|
| Associated Certifications | CCNP Data Center Certification Cisco Unified Computing Support Specialist |
| Duration | 90 minutes (65-75 questions) |
| Available Languages | English, Japanese |
| Register | Pearson VUE |
| Exam Policies | Read current policies and requirements |
| Exam Tutorial | Review type of exam questions |
NO.1 Which CLI command can tell which switch is on the other side of port channel 2 that is trunking
VSAN 5?
A. show topology vsan 5
B. show interface port-channel 2 trunk vsan 5
C. show interface port-channel 2 vsan 5 peer-info
D. show fcs vsan 5
E. show fspf database vsan 5 interface port-channel 2
Answer: A
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NO.2 Which option describes whythe merge status for any application shows "In Progress" for a
prolonged period of time when a new switch is added to the fabric?
A. The new switch must be upgraded to match the same version of code as the original switch.
B. The ports between the switches are not trunking all VSANs.
C. The application needs to be started on both switches.
D. There are outstanding changes that must be committed.
E. The merge status cannot occur until a copy running-config startup-config is done.
Answer: D
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NO.3 To ensure thatDCBX can be run on a switch, which other feature must be enabled?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. LLDP
C. Fibre Channel
D. IEEE 802.1ad
Answer: B
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NO.4 Which three statements are true about using the debug command to resolve an HSRP issue on
the Cisco Nexus platform? (Choose three.)
A. The debug command should be allowed to run for at least an hour.
B. The administrator can log debug messages to a special log file to avoid flooding the console.
C. Open a second Telnet or SSH session before you enter any debug commands so that if the debug
session overwhelms the console, you can stop the message output.
D. Use the debug command only under the guidance of Cisco Technical Support.
E. Use the Ethanalyzer remote interface command to capture packets.
F. The debug peer-gateway command should be used to isolate the problem.
Answer: B,C,D
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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit. Which two issues causeaproblemwith the implementation of an OTV
between data centers? (Choosetwo.)
A. incorrect control-group address
B. incorrect data-group range
C. overlapping control-group and data-ranges
D. incorrect MTU
E. incorrect IGMP version
Answer: C,E
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NO.6 In Cisco NX-OS releases prior to 5.2, how should the copp-system-p-policy policy be modified to
change how the supervisor module is protected from DoS attacks?
A. Modify the policy map type control-plane copp-system-policy.
B. Open DCNM and modify the "copp-system-p-policy" policy object.
C. Re-run the setup utility and apply a new CoPP profile.
D. In Cisco NX-OS versions prior to 5.2, the CoPP system profile can only be modified from the CMP
CLI.
Answer: C
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NO.7 What are the minimum number and maximum number of members that a SAN PortChannel
can have?
A. 1, 16
B. 2, 16
C. 1, 32
D. 2, 32
E. 1 minimum with no maximum
F. 2 minimum with no maximum
Answer: A
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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
When suspending or deleting VSANs, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete only one VSAN at a time.
B. You must wait 60 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another
command.
C. You must wait 120 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another
command.
D. You can unsuspend only one VSAN at a time.
E. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same domain.
F. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same zone.
Answer: A,B,D
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NO.1 Which backup option defines a user-defined name for a backup?
A. FORMAT
B. NAME
C. TAG
D. FORMAT U%
Answer: C
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NO.2 The BOOKINGS table contains online booking information. When a booking is confirmed, the
details are transferred to an archival table BOOKINGS_HIST and deleted from the BOOKINGS table.
There is no fixed time interval between each online booking and its confirmation. Because sufficient
space is not always available from the delete operations the high-water mark (HWM) is moved up
and many rows are inserted below the HWM of the table. The BOOKINGS table has Automatic
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mode.
What is the most efficient method to reclaim the space released by the delete operations in the
BOOKINGS table
A. Perform EXPORT, DROP, and IMPORT operations on the BOOKINGS table sequentially
B. Shrink the BOOKINGS table by using the ALTER TABLE... SHRINK SPACE command
C. Move the BOOKINGS table to a different location by using the ALTER TABLE... MOVE command
D. Deallocate the space in the BOOKINGS table by using the ALTER TABLE ... DEALLOCATE UNUSED
command
Answer: B
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NO.3 If you use ALTER DISKGROUP ... ADD DISK and specify a wildcard for the discovery string, what
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A. The command fails unless you specify the FORCE option.
B. The command fails unless you specify the REUSE option.
C. The command must be reissued with a more specific discovery string.
D. The other disks, already part of the disk group, are ignored.
Answer: D
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NO.4 Given a complete loss of your database, in what order would you need to perform the
following RMAN operations to restore it?
a.restore controlfile
b.restore database
c.restore spfile
d.recover database
e.alter database open
f.alter database open resetlogs
A.b, a, c, d, e
B.a, c, b, d, f
C.c, a, b, d, e
D.c, a, b, d, f
E.e, a, b, d, c
Answer: D
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NO.5 Your archive-log destination directory runs out of space. What is the impact of this on the
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A. None. The database will switch over to the stand-by archive-log destination directory.
B. A warning message will be written to the alert log of the database, but no adverse impacts to the
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C. The database will shut down, and will not restart until you correct the out-of-space situation.
D. The database will continue to try to write to the archive-log destination directory for one hour.
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E. Once Oracle has cycled through all online redo logs, it will stop processing any DML or DDL until
the out-of-space condition is corrected.
Answer: E
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NO.6 Note the following parameter settings:
Which setting is NOT allowed?
A. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=50M;
B. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=10M;
C. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_4K_CACHE_SIZE=10M;
D. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_16K_CACHE_SIZE=10M;
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Section: Initialization, Parameters, File Location & Server Configuration
http://www.akadia.com/services/ora_asm_multiple_block_sizes.html
db_block_size integer 8192 - is the db default so you can't have 8K subcache.
NO.7 View the Exhibit to examine the parameters set for your database instance.
You execute the following command to perform I/O calibration after the declaration of bind variables
in the session that are used in the command: SQL> EXECUTE dbms_resource_manager.calibrate_io(
num_physical_disks=>1, -max_latency=>50, -max_iops=>:max_iops, -max_mbps=>:max_mbps, -
actual_latency=>:actual_latency);
Which statement describes the consequence?
A. The command produces an error.
B. The calibration process runs successfully and populates all the bind variables.
C. The calibration process runs successfully but the latency time is not computed.
D. The calibration process runs successfully but only the latency time is computed.
Answer: A
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NO.8 Using Oracle Enterprise Manager to set SGA pool values manually, for which of the
following pools does Oracle EM offer advice to set the value appropriately? (Choose all that apply.)
A. DB_CACHE_SIZE
B. SHARED_POOL_SIZE
C. LARGE_POOL_SIZE
D. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
E. SGA_MAX_SIZE
F. SORT_AREA_SIZE
Answer: A,B
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Duration: 150 minutes
Associated Certifications: Oracle Certified Professional, Java SE 7 Programmer
Number of Questions: 80
Exam Product Version: Java SE,
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Exam Price: US$ 150
Validated Against:
This exam has been validated against SE 7
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NO.1 Which backup option defines a user-defined name for a backup?
A. FORMAT
B. NAME
C. TAG
D. FORMAT U%
Answer: C
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NO.2 The BOOKINGS table contains online booking information. When a booking is confirmed, the
details are transferred to an archival table BOOKINGS_HIST and deleted from the BOOKINGS table.
There is no fixed time interval between each online booking and its confirmation. Because sufficient
space is not always available from the delete operations the high-water mark (HWM) is moved up
and many rows are inserted below the HWM of the table. The BOOKINGS table has Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM) and row movement enabled. The table is accessible in 24x7
mode.
What is the most efficient method to reclaim the space released by the delete operations in the
BOOKINGS table
A. Perform EXPORT, DROP, and IMPORT operations on the BOOKINGS table sequentially
B. Shrink the BOOKINGS table by using the ALTER TABLE... SHRINK SPACE command
C. Move the BOOKINGS table to a different location by using the ALTER TABLE... MOVE command
D. Deallocate the space in the BOOKINGS table by using the ALTER TABLE ... DEALLOCATE UNUSED
command
Answer: B
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NO.3 If you use ALTER DISKGROUP ... ADD DISK and specify a wildcard for the discovery string, what
happens to disks that are already a part of the same or another disk group?
A. The command fails unless you specify the FORCE option.
B. The command fails unless you specify the REUSE option.
C. The command must be reissued with a more specific discovery string.
D. The other disks, already part of the disk group, are ignored.
Answer: D
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NO.4 Given a complete loss of your database, in what order would you need to perform the
following RMAN operations to restore it?
a.restore controlfile
b.restore database
c.restore spfile
d.recover database
e.alter database open
f.alter database open resetlogs
A.b, a, c, d, e
B.a, c, b, d, f
C.c, a, b, d, e
D.c, a, b, d, f
E.e, a, b, d, c
Answer: D
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NO.5 Your archive-log destination directory runs out of space. What is the impact of this on the
database?
A. None. The database will switch over to the stand-by archive-log destination directory.
B. A warning message will be written to the alert log of the database, but no adverse impacts to the
database will be experienced.
C. The database will shut down, and will not restart until you correct the out-of-space situation.
D. The database will continue to try to write to the archive-log destination directory for one hour.
After one hour, the database will shut down normally.
E. Once Oracle has cycled through all online redo logs, it will stop processing any DML or DDL until
the out-of-space condition is corrected.
Answer: E
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NO.6 Note the following parameter settings:
Which setting is NOT allowed?
A. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=50M;
B. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=10M;
C. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_4K_CACHE_SIZE=10M;
D. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_16K_CACHE_SIZE=10M;
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Section: Initialization, Parameters, File Location & Server Configuration
http://www.akadia.com/services/ora_asm_multiple_block_sizes.html
db_block_size integer 8192 - is the db default so you can't have 8K subcache.
NO.7 View the Exhibit to examine the parameters set for your database instance.
You execute the following command to perform I/O calibration after the declaration of bind variables
in the session that are used in the command: SQL> EXECUTE dbms_resource_manager.calibrate_io(
num_physical_disks=>1, -max_latency=>50, -max_iops=>:max_iops, -max_mbps=>:max_mbps, -
actual_latency=>:actual_latency);
Which statement describes the consequence?
A. The command produces an error.
B. The calibration process runs successfully and populates all the bind variables.
C. The calibration process runs successfully but the latency time is not computed.
D. The calibration process runs successfully but only the latency time is computed.
Answer: A
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NO.8 Using Oracle Enterprise Manager to set SGA pool values manually, for which of the
following pools does Oracle EM offer advice to set the value appropriately? (Choose all that apply.)
A. DB_CACHE_SIZE
B. SHARED_POOL_SIZE
C. LARGE_POOL_SIZE
D. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
E. SGA_MAX_SIZE
F. SORT_AREA_SIZE
Answer: A,B
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NO.1 Which function key is used to start Safe Mode in Windows NT?
A. F10
B. F8
C. F6
D. Windows NT does not support Safe Mode
Answer: D
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NO.2 Which of the following commands changes the ownership of file.txt to the user dan and the
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A. chown dan/staff file.txt
B. chown dan:staff file.txt
C. chown -u dan -g staff file.txt
D. chown dan -g staff file.txt
Answer: B
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NO.3 Which type of filesystem is created by mkfs when it is executed with the block device name only
and without any additional parameters?
A. ext2
B. ext3
C. ext4
D. XFS
E. VFAT
Answer: A
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NO.4 Which of the following shell redirections will write standard output and standard error output
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A. 2>&1 >filename
B. >filename 2>&1
C. 1>&2>filename
D. >>filename
E. 1&2>filename
Answer: B
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NO.5 Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key
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A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
Answer: C
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A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Answer: C
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NO.7 Which of the following commands displays the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf -
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf -
D. tar cf archive.tgz
Answer: B
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NO.8 Regarding the command:
nice -5 /usr/bin/prog
Whichof the following statements is correct?
A. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a nice level of -5.
B. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a nice level of 5.
C. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a priority of -5.
D. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a priority of 5.
Answer: B
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A. F10
B. F8
C. F6
D. Windows NT does not support Safe Mode
Answer: D
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NO.2 Which of the following commands changes the ownership of file.txt to the user dan and the
group staff?
A. chown dan/staff file.txt
B. chown dan:staff file.txt
C. chown -u dan -g staff file.txt
D. chown dan -g staff file.txt
Answer: B
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NO.3 Which type of filesystem is created by mkfs when it is executed with the block device name only
and without any additional parameters?
A. ext2
B. ext3
C. ext4
D. XFS
E. VFAT
Answer: A
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NO.4 Which of the following shell redirections will write standard output and standard error output
to a file named filename?
A. 2>&1 >filename
B. >filename 2>&1
C. 1>&2>filename
D. >>filename
E. 1&2>filename
Answer: B
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NO.5 Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key
combination?
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
Answer: C
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NO.6 Which of the following environment variables overrides or extends the list of directories holding
shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Answer: C
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NO.7 Which of the following commands displays the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf -
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf -
D. tar cf archive.tgz
Answer: B
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NO.8 Regarding the command:
nice -5 /usr/bin/prog
Whichof the following statements is correct?
A. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a nice level of -5.
B. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a nice level of 5.
C. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a priority of -5.
D. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a priority of 5.
Answer: B
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2015年10月23日星期五
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Bewertete Fähigkeiten
Mit dieser Prüfung werden Ihre Fähigkeiten bei der Ausführung der unten aufgeführten technischen Aufgaben bewertet. Die Prozentangaben geben Aufschluss über die relative Gewichtung der einzelnen Schwerpunktthemen. Je höher der Prozentsatz, desto mehr Fragen wird die Prüfung zu diesem Bereich enthalten.
Bitte beachten Sie, dass sich die Prüfungsfragen auf die Themen in den nachfolgenden Aufzählungen beziehen, jedoch nicht darauf beschränkt sind.
Planung und Design von SharePoint-Sites (10-15 %)
Implementieren der Autorisierung und Authentifizierung (10-15 %)
Zugriff auf und Verwaltung von Daten (10-15 %)
Implementierung von SharePoint-Lösungen (15-20 %)
Implementieren der Benutzerfreundlichkeit und Informationsarchitektur (10-15 %)
Erstellen von Geschäftsprozessen (10-15 %)
Erstellen von Office-Apps (10-15 %)
Wer sollte diese Prüfung ablegen?
Kandidaten für diese Prüfung sind für die Erstellung von benutzerdefiniertem Code für Projekte zuständig, die in SharePoint-Umgebungen eingesetzt werden oder mit ihnen interagieren.
Der typische Kandidat ist normalerweise auch mit SharePoint-Funktionen und mit Onlinediensten wie Azure und SharePoint Online sowie mit der Entwicklung Office Client-Anwendungen vertraut.
Do you want to pass 70-412 exam certification at your first attempt to attend 70-412 test? With ITCertMaster, we will meet all of your needs, and make you pass 70-412 certification exam at one time in a limited time. Because ITCertMaster have 70-412 exam certification training materials, which are summarized by experienced IT experts with many years' practice, and is a combination of 70-412 exam dumps and answers, you can't regret to choose ITCertMaster.
Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
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Updated: 10-23,2015
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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
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Updated: 10-23,2015
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NO.1 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains
two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature installed. The servers are
configured as nodes in an NLB cluster named Cluster1.
Port rules are configured for all clustered Applications.
You need to ensure that Server2 handles all client requests to the cluster that are NOT covered by a
port rule.
What should you configure?
A. Affinity-None
B. Affinity-Single
C. The cluster quorum settings
D. The failover settings
E. A file server for general use
F. The Handling priority
G. The host priority
H. Live migration
I. The possible owner
J. The preferred owner
K. Quick migration
L. The Scale-Out File Server
Answer: G
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Explanation:
Host Priorities Each cluster host is assigned a unique host priority in the range of 1 to 32, where lower
numbers denote higher priorities. The host with the highest host priority (lowest numeric value) is
called the default host. It handles all client traffic for the virtual IP addresses that is not specifically
intended to be load-balanced. This ensures that server applications not configured for load balancing
only receive client traffic on a single host. If the default host fails, the host with the next highest
priority takes over as default host.
Reference: Network Load Balancing Technical Overview
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb742455.aspx
NO.2 HOTSPOT
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains a single
domain.
The forest contains the domain controllers configured as shown in the following table.
Recently, a domain controller named DC4 was deployed to adatum.com. DC4 is in the Default-First-
Site-Name site.
The adatum.com site links are configured as follows.
The schedule for SiteLink1 is shown in the SiteLink1 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) The schedule
for SiteLink2 is shown in the SiteLink2 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Answer:
NO.3 You have a server named SCI that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes.
You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime.
Which tool should you use?
A. Shadow
B. Diskshadow
C. Wbadmin
D. Diskpart
Answer: B
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Explanation:
DiskShadow.exe is a tool that exposes the functionality offered by the Volume Shadow
Copy Service (VSS).
The diskshadow command delete shadows deletes shadow copies.
Reference: Technet, Diskshadow
NO.4 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains a single domain.
The forest contains three Active Directory sites named SiteA, SiteB, and SiteC.
The sites contain four domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the
following table.
An IP site link exits between each site.
You discover that the users in SiteC are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteA and SiteB.
You need to ensure that the SiteC users are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteB, unless
all of the domain controllers in SiteB are unavailable.
What should you do?
A. Create an SMTP site link between SiteB and SiteC.
B. Create additional connection objects for DC3 and DC4.
C. Decrease the cost of the site link between SiteB and SiteC.
D. Create additional connection objects for DC1 and DC2.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
By decreasing the site link cost between SiteB and SiteC the SiteC users would be authenticated by
SiteB rather than by SiteA.
NO.5 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Each day, Server1 is backed up fully to an external disk.
On Server1, the disk that contains the operating system fails.
You replace the failed disk.
You need to perform a bare-metal recovery of Server1 by using the Windows Recovery
Environment (Windows RE).
What should you do?
A. Run the Start-WBVolumeRecovery cmdlet and specify the -backupset parameter.
B. Run the Get-WBBareMetalRecovery cmdlet and specify the -policy parameter.
C. Run the wbadmin.exe start recovery command and specify the -recoverytarget parameter.
D. Run the wbadmin.exe start sysrecovery command and specify the -backuptarget parameter.
Answer: D
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Explanation:
Performs a system recovery (bare metal recovery). This subcommand can be run only from the
Windows Recovery Environment.
* -backupTarget Specifies the storage location that contains the backup or backups that you want to
recover. This parameter is useful when the storage location is different from where backups of this
computer are usually stored.
Reference: Wbadmin start sysrecovery
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc742118.aspx
NO.6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2.
You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1 and Server2. You install the IP
Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on Server1.
You notice that you cannot discover Server1 or Server2 in IPAM.
You need to ensure that you can use IPAM to discover the DHCP infrastructure.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. On Server2, create an IPv4 scope.
B. On Server1, run the Add-IpamServerInventory cmdlet.
C. On Server2, run the Add-DhcpServerInDc cmdlet
D. On both Server1 and Server2, run the Add-DhcpServerv4Policy cmdlet.
E. On Server1, uninstall the DHCP Server server role.
Answer: B,C
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Explanation:
B. The Add-IpamServerInventory cmdlet adds a new infrastructure server to the IP Address
Management (IPAM) server inventory. Use the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the server to
add to the server inventory.
C. The Add-DhcpServerInDC cmdlet adds the computer running the DHCP server service to the list of
authorized Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server services in the Active Directory (AD).
A DHCP server service running on a domain joined computer needs to be authorized in AD so that it
can start leasing IP addresses on the network.
Reference: Add-IpamServerInventory; Add-DhcpServerInDC
NO.7 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains
a single domain. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have a domain controller named DC1.
On DC1, you create a new Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. You need to verify that GPO1 was
replicated to all of the domain controllers.
Which tool should you use?
A. Group Policy Management
B. Active Directory Sites and Services
C. DFS Management
D. Active Directory Administrative Center
Answer: A
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Explanation:
In Windows Server 2012, the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) was enhanced to provide a
report for the overall health state of the Group Policy infrastructure for a domain, or to scope the
health view to a single GPO.
Reference: Check Group Policy Infrastructure Status
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134176.aspx
NO.8 Your network contains two DNS servers named DNS1 and DNS2 that run Windows Server 2012
R2.
DNS1 has a primary zone named contoso.com. DNS2 has a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone.
You need to log the zone transfer packets sent between DNS1 and DNS2.
What should you configure?
A. Monitoring from DNS Manager
B. Logging from Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
C. A Data Collector Set (DCS) from Performance Monitor
D. Debug logging from DNS Manager
Answer: D
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Explanation:
Debug logging allows you to log the packets sent and received by a DNS server. Debug logging is
disabled by default, and because it is resource intensive, you should only activate it temporarily when
you need more specific detailed information about server performance.
Reference: Active Directory 2008: DNS Debug Logging Facts.
70-488 Bootcamp : http://exam.it2blog.com/2014/12/30/70-464-vce-dumps-70-488-practice-test/
You can free download part of ITCertMaster's exercises and answers about Microsoft certification 70-412 exam as a try, then you will be more confident to choose our ITCertMaster's products to prepare your Microsoft certification 70-412 exam. Please add ITCertMaster's products in you cart quickly.
Bewertete Fähigkeiten
Mit dieser Prüfung werden Ihre Fähigkeiten bei der Ausführung der unten aufgeführten technischen Aufgaben bewertet. Die Prozentangaben geben Aufschluss über die relative Gewichtung der einzelnen Schwerpunktthemen. Je höher der Prozentsatz, desto mehr Fragen wird die Prüfung zu diesem Bereich enthalten.
Bitte beachten Sie, dass sich die Prüfungsfragen auf die Themen in den nachfolgenden Aufzählungen beziehen, jedoch nicht darauf beschränkt sind.
Planung und Design von SharePoint-Sites (10-15 %)
Implementieren der Autorisierung und Authentifizierung (10-15 %)
Zugriff auf und Verwaltung von Daten (10-15 %)
Implementierung von SharePoint-Lösungen (15-20 %)
Implementieren der Benutzerfreundlichkeit und Informationsarchitektur (10-15 %)
Erstellen von Geschäftsprozessen (10-15 %)
Erstellen von Office-Apps (10-15 %)
Wer sollte diese Prüfung ablegen?
Kandidaten für diese Prüfung sind für die Erstellung von benutzerdefiniertem Code für Projekte zuständig, die in SharePoint-Umgebungen eingesetzt werden oder mit ihnen interagieren.
Der typische Kandidat ist normalerweise auch mit SharePoint-Funktionen und mit Onlinediensten wie Azure und SharePoint Online sowie mit der Entwicklung Office Client-Anwendungen vertraut.
Do you want to pass 70-412 exam certification at your first attempt to attend 70-412 test? With ITCertMaster, we will meet all of your needs, and make you pass 70-412 certification exam at one time in a limited time. Because ITCertMaster have 70-412 exam certification training materials, which are summarized by experienced IT experts with many years' practice, and is a combination of 70-412 exam dumps and answers, you can't regret to choose ITCertMaster.
Exam Code: 70-488
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Microsoft 70-488 Real Dumps 131 Q&As
Updated: 10-23,2015
70-488 Practice Exam Detail : 70-488 Real Dumps
Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Microsoft 70-412 Dumps PDF 244 Q&As
Updated: 10-23,2015
70-412 Latest Dumps Detail : 70-412 Dumps PDF
Are you still distressed that you are young learner of 70-488 exam prep? From now on, ITCertMaster will solve all your worries about the 70-488 test. The textbooks of 70-488 test questions contain different perspective materials. Even if you are young learners, you can master 70-488 test questions easily. Having it, you will have the key to pass 70-488 exam and will have unprecedented confidence. So what are you waiting for?
70-412 Free Demo Download: http://www.itcertmaster.com/70-412.html
NO.1 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains
two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature installed. The servers are
configured as nodes in an NLB cluster named Cluster1.
Port rules are configured for all clustered Applications.
You need to ensure that Server2 handles all client requests to the cluster that are NOT covered by a
port rule.
What should you configure?
A. Affinity-None
B. Affinity-Single
C. The cluster quorum settings
D. The failover settings
E. A file server for general use
F. The Handling priority
G. The host priority
H. Live migration
I. The possible owner
J. The preferred owner
K. Quick migration
L. The Scale-Out File Server
Answer: G
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Explanation:
Host Priorities Each cluster host is assigned a unique host priority in the range of 1 to 32, where lower
numbers denote higher priorities. The host with the highest host priority (lowest numeric value) is
called the default host. It handles all client traffic for the virtual IP addresses that is not specifically
intended to be load-balanced. This ensures that server applications not configured for load balancing
only receive client traffic on a single host. If the default host fails, the host with the next highest
priority takes over as default host.
Reference: Network Load Balancing Technical Overview
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb742455.aspx
NO.2 HOTSPOT
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains a single
domain.
The forest contains the domain controllers configured as shown in the following table.
Recently, a domain controller named DC4 was deployed to adatum.com. DC4 is in the Default-First-
Site-Name site.
The adatum.com site links are configured as follows.
The schedule for SiteLink1 is shown in the SiteLink1 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) The schedule
for SiteLink2 is shown in the SiteLink2 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Answer:
NO.3 You have a server named SCI that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes.
You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime.
Which tool should you use?
A. Shadow
B. Diskshadow
C. Wbadmin
D. Diskpart
Answer: B
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Explanation:
DiskShadow.exe is a tool that exposes the functionality offered by the Volume Shadow
Copy Service (VSS).
The diskshadow command delete shadows deletes shadow copies.
Reference: Technet, Diskshadow
NO.4 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains a single domain.
The forest contains three Active Directory sites named SiteA, SiteB, and SiteC.
The sites contain four domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the
following table.
An IP site link exits between each site.
You discover that the users in SiteC are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteA and SiteB.
You need to ensure that the SiteC users are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteB, unless
all of the domain controllers in SiteB are unavailable.
What should you do?
A. Create an SMTP site link between SiteB and SiteC.
B. Create additional connection objects for DC3 and DC4.
C. Decrease the cost of the site link between SiteB and SiteC.
D. Create additional connection objects for DC1 and DC2.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
By decreasing the site link cost between SiteB and SiteC the SiteC users would be authenticated by
SiteB rather than by SiteA.
NO.5 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Each day, Server1 is backed up fully to an external disk.
On Server1, the disk that contains the operating system fails.
You replace the failed disk.
You need to perform a bare-metal recovery of Server1 by using the Windows Recovery
Environment (Windows RE).
What should you do?
A. Run the Start-WBVolumeRecovery cmdlet and specify the -backupset parameter.
B. Run the Get-WBBareMetalRecovery cmdlet and specify the -policy parameter.
C. Run the wbadmin.exe start recovery command and specify the -recoverytarget parameter.
D. Run the wbadmin.exe start sysrecovery command and specify the -backuptarget parameter.
Answer: D
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Explanation:
Performs a system recovery (bare metal recovery). This subcommand can be run only from the
Windows Recovery Environment.
* -backupTarget Specifies the storage location that contains the backup or backups that you want to
recover. This parameter is useful when the storage location is different from where backups of this
computer are usually stored.
Reference: Wbadmin start sysrecovery
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc742118.aspx
NO.6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2.
You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1 and Server2. You install the IP
Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on Server1.
You notice that you cannot discover Server1 or Server2 in IPAM.
You need to ensure that you can use IPAM to discover the DHCP infrastructure.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. On Server2, create an IPv4 scope.
B. On Server1, run the Add-IpamServerInventory cmdlet.
C. On Server2, run the Add-DhcpServerInDc cmdlet
D. On both Server1 and Server2, run the Add-DhcpServerv4Policy cmdlet.
E. On Server1, uninstall the DHCP Server server role.
Answer: B,C
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Explanation:
B. The Add-IpamServerInventory cmdlet adds a new infrastructure server to the IP Address
Management (IPAM) server inventory. Use the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the server to
add to the server inventory.
C. The Add-DhcpServerInDC cmdlet adds the computer running the DHCP server service to the list of
authorized Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server services in the Active Directory (AD).
A DHCP server service running on a domain joined computer needs to be authorized in AD so that it
can start leasing IP addresses on the network.
Reference: Add-IpamServerInventory; Add-DhcpServerInDC
NO.7 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains
a single domain. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have a domain controller named DC1.
On DC1, you create a new Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. You need to verify that GPO1 was
replicated to all of the domain controllers.
Which tool should you use?
A. Group Policy Management
B. Active Directory Sites and Services
C. DFS Management
D. Active Directory Administrative Center
Answer: A
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Explanation:
In Windows Server 2012, the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) was enhanced to provide a
report for the overall health state of the Group Policy infrastructure for a domain, or to scope the
health view to a single GPO.
Reference: Check Group Policy Infrastructure Status
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134176.aspx
NO.8 Your network contains two DNS servers named DNS1 and DNS2 that run Windows Server 2012
R2.
DNS1 has a primary zone named contoso.com. DNS2 has a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone.
You need to log the zone transfer packets sent between DNS1 and DNS2.
What should you configure?
A. Monitoring from DNS Manager
B. Logging from Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
C. A Data Collector Set (DCS) from Performance Monitor
D. Debug logging from DNS Manager
Answer: D
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Explanation:
Debug logging allows you to log the packets sent and received by a DNS server. Debug logging is
disabled by default, and because it is resource intensive, you should only activate it temporarily when
you need more specific detailed information about server performance.
Reference: Active Directory 2008: DNS Debug Logging Facts.
70-488 Bootcamp : http://exam.it2blog.com/2014/12/30/70-464-vce-dumps-70-488-practice-test/
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