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NO.1 Harold is the senior security analyst for a small state agency in New York. He has no other
security professionals that work under him, so he has to do all the security-related tasks for the
agency. Coming from a computer hardware background, Harold does not have a lot of experience
with security methodologies and technologies, but he was the only one who applied for the
position. Harold is currently trying to run a Sniffer on the agency's network to get an idea of what
kind of traffic is being passed around, but the program he is using does not seem to be capturing
anything. He pours through the Sniffer's manual, but cannot find anything that directly relates to
his problem. Harold decides to ask the network administrator if he has any thoughts on the
problem. Harold is told that the Sniffer was not working because the agency's network is a
switched network, which cannot be sniffed by some programs without some tweaking. What
technique could Harold use to sniff his agency's switched network?
A. ARP spoof the default gateway
B. Conduct MiTM against the switch
C. Launch smurf attack against the switch
D. Flood the switch with ICMP packets
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are the CIO for Avantes Finance International, a global finance company based in Geneva.
You are responsible for network functions and logical security throughout the entire corporation.
Your company has over 250 servers running Windows Server, 5000 workstations running
Windows Vista, and 200 mobile users working from laptops on Windows 7.
Last week, 10 of your company's laptops were stolen from salesmen while at a conference in
Amsterdam. These laptops contained proprietary company information. While doing damage
assessment on the possible public relations nightmare this may become, a news story leaks about
the stolen laptops and also that sensitive information from those computers was posted to a blog
online.
What built-in Windows feature could you have implemented to protect the sensitive information on
these laptops?
A. You should have used 3DES which is built into Windows
B. If you would have implemented Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) which is built into Windows,the
sensitive information on the laptops would not have leaked out
C. You should have utilized the built-in feature of Distributed File System (DFS) to protect the
sensitive information on the laptops
D. You could have implemented Encrypted File System (EFS) to encrypt the sensitive files on the
laptops
Answer: D

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NO.3 You just purchased the latest DELL computer, which comes pre-installed with Windows 7,
McAfee antivirus software and a host of other applications. You want to connect Ethernet wire to
your cable modem and start using the computer immediately. Windows is dangerously insecure
when unpacked from the box, and there are a few things that you must do before you use it.
A. New installation of Windows should be patched by installing the latest service packs and
hotfixes
B. Key applications such as Adobe Acrobat,Macromedia Flash,Java,Winzip etc.,must have the
latest security patches installed
C. Install a personal firewall and lock down unused ports from connecting to your computer
D. Install the latest signatures for Antivirus software
E. Configure "Windows Update" to automatic
F. Create a non-admin user with a complex password and logon to this account
G. You can start using your computer as vendors such as DELL,HP and IBM would have already
installed the latest service packs.
Answer: A,C,D,E,F

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NO.4 WEP is used on 802.11 networks, what was it designed for?
A. WEP is designed to provide a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a level of security and
privacy comparable to what it usually expected of a wired LAN.
B. WEP is designed to provide strong encryption to a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a
lever of integrity and privacy adequate for sensible but unclassified information.
C. WEP is designed to provide a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a level of availability
and privacy comparable to what is usually expected of a wired LAN.
D. WEOP is designed to provide a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a level of privacy
comparable to what it usually expected of a wired LAN.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A security analyst in an insurance company is assigned to test a new web application that will
be
used by clients to help them choose and apply for an insurance plan. The analyst discovers that
the application is developed in ASP scripting language and it uses MSSQL as a database
backend. The analyst locates the application's search form and introduces the following code in
the search input fielD.
IMG SRC=vbscript:msgbox("Vulnerable");> originalAttribute="SRC"
originalPath="vbscript:msgbox("Vulnerable");>"
When the analyst submits the form, the browser returns a pop-up window that says "Vulnerable".
Which web applications vulnerability did the analyst discover?
A. Cross-site request forgery
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is an automated vulnerability assessment tool?
A. Whack a Mole
B. Nmap
C. Nessus
D. Kismet
E. Jill32
Answer: C

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NO.7 Bart is looking for a Windows NT/ 2000/XP command-line tool that can be used to assign,
display,
or modify ACL’s (access control lists) to files or folders and also one that can be used within batch
files.
Which of the following tools can be used for that purpose? (Choose the best answer)
A. PERM.exe
B. CACLS.exe
C. CLACS.exe
D. NTPERM.exe
Answer: B

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Exam Name: SAS Advanced Programming Exam for SAS 9
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NO.1 The following SAS program is submitted:
data temp;
length 1 b 3 x;
infile 'file reference';
input a b x;
run;
What is the result?
A. The data set TEMP is not created because variables A and B have invalid lengths
B. The data set TEMP is created, but variable X is not created
C. The data set TEMP is not created because variable A has an invalid length
D. The data set TEMP is created and variable X has a length of 8
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which SET statements option names a variable that contains the number of the
observation to read during the current iteration of the DATA step? A. OBS=pointobs
B. POINT=pointobs
C. KEY=pointobs
D. NOBS=pointobs
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the SAS data set ONE:
ONE
DIVISION SALES
A 1234
A 3654
B 5678
The following SAS program is submitted:
Data_null_;
Set one;
By divition;
If first.division then
Do;
%let mfirst=sales;
end;
run;
What is the value of the macro variable MFRIST when the program finishes execution?
A. 1234
B. sales
C. 5678
D. null
Answer: B

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NO.4 The following SAS program is submitted:
%macro one(input);
%two;
%put the value is &date;
%mend;
%macro two;
data _null_;
call symput('date','12SEP2008');
run;
%mend;
%let date=31DEC2006;
%one(&date)
What is the result when the %PUT statement executes.?
A. A macro variable DATE with the value 12SEP2008 is retrieved from the local symbol
table for the ONE macro
B. A macro variable DATE with the value 12SEP2008 is retrieved from the local symbol
table for the TWO macro
C. A macro variable DATE with the value 12SEP2008 is retrieved from the global
symbol table
D. A macro variable DATE with the value 31DEC2006 is retrieved from the global
symbol table
Answer: C

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NO.5 The following SAS program is submitted:
Data sasuser.history;
Set sasuser.history(keep=state x y
Rename = (state=ST));
Total=sum(x,y);
Run;
The SAS data set SASUSER.HISTORY has an index on the variable STATE.
Which describes the result of submitting the SAS program?
A. The index on STATE is deleted and an index on ST is created
B. The index on STATE is recreated as an index on ST
C. The index on STATE is deleted
D. The index on STATE is updated as an index on ST
Answer: C

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NO.6 The following SAS program is submitted:
%micro test(var);
%let jobs=BLACKSMITH WORDSMITH SWORDSMITH;
%let type=%index(&jobs,&var);
%put type = &type;
%mend;
%test(SMITH)
What is the value of the macro variable TYPE when the %PUT statement executes?
A. 0
B. Null
C. 6
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.7 When reading a SAS data file, what does the NOBS=option on the SET statement
represent?
A. A variable that represents the total number of observation in the output data set(s)
B. A variable that represents a flag indicating the end of the file
C. A variable that represents the total number of observations in the input data set(s)
D. A variable that represents the current observation number
Answer: C

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NO.8 CORRECT TEXT
The following SAS program is submitted:
%macro check(num=4);
%let result=%sysevalf(&num+0.5);
%put result is &result;
%mend;
%check(num=10)
What is the written to the SAS log?
result is
result is 10
result is 10.5
result is 10+0.5
Answer: C

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NO.1 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.2 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.4 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.6 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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Windows Operating System Fundamentals

• Published: April 13, 2011
• Languages: English
• Audiences: Home PC users, academic, information workers, IT professionals, developers
• Technology: Windows 7
• Credit toward certification: MTA

Understanding operating system configurations (15–20%)
Installing and upgrading client systems (15–20%)
Managing applications (15–20%)
Managing files and folders (15–20%)
Managing devices (15–20%)
Understanding operating system maintenance (15–20%)
Instructor-led training
Practice test
Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam should have knowledge of fundamental Windows Operating System concepts in a Windows 7 environment.

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Oracle 1z0-599 exam practice questions and answers

Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-599 / 1Z0-599
Duration: 120 minutes
Associated Certifications: OPN Certified Specialist , Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Certified Implementation Specialist
Number of Questions: 78
Exam Product Version: WebLogic Server,
Passing Score: 63%
Exam Price: US$ 150
Validated Against:
This exam has been validated against 12c

format: Multiple Choice


Recommended Training

• Guided Learning Path: Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Implementation Specialist (available to partners only)

• Training Opportunities for Oracle Partners (available to partners only)
• Relevant OU Training: These courses are relevant to the exam, but may not cover all exam topics. Please carefully compare course topics and exam topics.
  • Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Administration I
  • Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Administration II
  • Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: JMS Administration
  • Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Performance Tuning Workshop
  • Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Troubleshooting Workshop
  • Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Enterprise Manager Management Pack

TOPICS
Cloud Application Foundation (CAF) Fundamentals

• Describe Cloud Application Foundation concepts
• Identify components of WebLogic Suite
• Identify differences between WebLogic Server (WLS) SE, EE & Suite
• Describe the problem domain of Coherence with WLS
• Describe Oracle Cloud Computing business drivers
• Describe Virtual Assembly Builder Studio features
• Describe supported and custom Appliances for Virtual Assemblies
• Describe ActiveCache (WLS and Coherence)

WebLogic Server Fundamentals

• Describe the different WLS distributions that are available
• Describe Enterprise Grid Messaging
• Describe Active GridLink for Real Application Cluster (RAC) features
• Explain WLS Domain concepts
• Install WLS
• Create and use WLS Domain Templates
• Automate WLS administration tasks with WebLogic Scriptiong Tool (WLST)
• Secure WLS resources and applications
• Configure and use WLS Work Managers, Contexts and Constraints
• Create and target JDBC Connection Pools
• Create and target JMS Distributed Queues
• Create and target JMS Distributed Topics
• Configure and use WebLogic Diagnostic Framework (WLDF)
• Configure and use JRockit Flight Recorder and WLDF integration
• Tune the Application Server Environment including the Java Virtual Machine (JVM) for performance
• Troubleshoot and debug WLS using logs and thread dumps

Deploy Java Enterprise Edition (EE) Applications

• Describe Java EE 6 and Developer Productivity features
• Describe Java Integrated Development Environments (IDE) support
• Describe Maven integration features
• Describe Java SE packaging
• Describe the structure and parts of a Java web application
• Describe the structure and parts of a Java enterprise application
• Deploy Java EE applications to WLS
• Deploy Java EE applications using a Deployment Plan
• Deploy WLS shared libraries and associate them with applications
• Deploy applications using the WLS Administration Port and Side by Side Deployment
• Use the Continuous Integration (CI) and Build Tools that WLS supports (ANT, Maven, etc.)
• Enable and use WLS Fast Swap for Rapid Redeployment
• Troubleshoot classloading conflicts with the ClassLoader Analysis Tool
• Describe WLS Spring Support and how Spring can utilize WLS features
• Secure Java EE applications

WebLogic Server Management

• Use JRockit Mission Control to monitor WLS at runtime
• Use JRockit Mission Control to view JRockit Flight Recorder and WLDF data
• Monitoring and diagnose WLS for best performance
• Use the WLS Admin Console to manage WLS
• Start and stop WLS instances using the Node Manager

WebLogic Server Advanced Topics

• Describe the value that WLS offers above an EE container
• Describe JDBC
• Describe WLS Distributed JMS
• Describe WLS Clustering
• Use Scripting with WLS
• Use Automation options for WLS
• Describe Remote Procedure Calls (RPC) & Web Services Standards supported by WLS
• Describe Web Session and XA Affinity features of Active GridLink
• Configure WLS to store Transaction Logs in a Database
• Configure systems for High Availability
• Configure and use advanced JMS features: Store and Forward
• Configure and use advanced JMS features: Unit of Order (UOO) and Unit of Work (UOW)
• Configure and use TopLink Grid - Java Persistence API (JPA) and Coherence
• Configure systems for ease of Disaster Recovery
• Configure and use ActiveCache (WLS and Coherence)
• Implement High Availablity (HA) in WLS with Service and Server Migration

WebLogic Server System Architecture

• Design a scaled-out solution with WLS
• Architect a highly available WLS system
• Use proxy web server
• Use load balancer
• Design a WLS system for maximum uptime, availability and business continuity

WebLogic Server Implementation Best Practices

• Create WLS system design consderations
• Create a WLS Domain using best practices
• Configure a WLS Cluster and Managed Servers using best practices
• Configure the JVM where WLS runs using best practices
• Configure JDBC Connection Pools using best practices
• Configure JMS using best practices
• Use Work Managers using best practices
• Install with Node Manager using best practices

WebLogic Server Patching and Upgrading with SmartUpdate

• Describe how patches are applied to WLS
• Apply a rolling patch strategy to a WLS Cluster to ensure maximum availability
• Upgrade from WLS 10.3.3 to newer versions
• Upgrade from Oracle Application Server (OC4J/OAS) to WLS
• Describe Oracle offerings for upgrading from non-Oracle platforms to WLS

Integrate Enterprise Manager and WebLogic Server

• Integrate Enterprise Manager with WLS
• Explain how to position WebLogic Management Pack EE
• Describe Real Operation Automation
• Describe Real Operation Insight
• Use Enterprise Manager Lifecycle Management for WLS
• Describe Enterprise Manager Real User Experience Insight
• Describe Enterprise Manager Business Transaction Management for WLS
• Describe Enterprise Manager Configuration Management for WLS

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Exam Code: 1z0-599
Exam Name: Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Essentials
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
1z0-599 Actual Test Total Q&A: 91 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 06-29,2015

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Lpi 117-101 PDF

NO.1 In bash, inserting 2>&1 after a command redirects
A. standard error to standard input.
B. standard input to standard error.
C. standard output to standard error.
D. standard error to standard output.
E. standard output to standard input.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What command line redirection characters instruct the shell to read from the current input source until a
specific word, on a separate line and without any trailing spaces, is reached?
A. <<
B. <|
C. !<
D. &<
Answer: A

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NO.3 To ensure that a running process continues to execute after you log out, the process should be started
with what command?
A. live
B. nohup
C. saferun
D. sh
Answer: B

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NO.4 Once a shell variable has been created, how can the variable be removed from the environment?
A. VAR=
B. set -d VAR
C. set -u VAR
D. unset VAR
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which command will show you the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf -
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf -
D. tar cf archive.tgz
Answer: B

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NO.6 You've downloaded an image file of a boot floppy disk to your hard drive. What is the best utility to
create a boot floppy from the disk image? (Specify a single command without options.) Answer:
A. DD,/BIN/DD
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which command will convert all tab characters in a file to spaces and print that to standard out?
A. convert
B. expand
C. retab
D. untab
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following sed commands will replace all instances of the string foo with the string foobar
changing the file file1.txt in place.?
A. sed 's/foo/foobar/g' file1.txt
B. sed 's/foo/foobar/g' file1.txt > file1.txt
C. sed 's/foo/foobar/g' file1.txt | file1.txt
D. sed -i 's/foo/foobar/g' file1.txt
E. sed -i 's/foo/foobar/g' file1.txt > file1.txt
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 117-101
Exam Name: Lpi Level 1 Exam 101(with rpm)
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C4040-122 exam objectives:
1. General Product Knowledge (46%)
2. Competition (10%)
   a. Differentiate Power Systems servers against the competition, including x86 Linux, Oracle, HP, Cisco
   b. Differentiate PowerVM and IBM virtualization solutions against the competition, including virtualization solutions like  VMWare, HyperV and XenServer
   c. #Identify appropriate tools to use in competitive situations
3. Value Proposition (23%)
4. Opportunity Development and Sales Strategy (13%)
5. Design a solution at a high level (12%)
Test C4040-122 information:
Number of questions: 52
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 63%
Test languages: English, Japanese
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Exam Code: 000-122
Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER7 Common Sales Skills -v2
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Exam Code: MB2-866
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011, Customization and Configuration
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
MB2-866 Dumps PDF Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 06-29,2015

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Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 customization and configuration

• Published: April 18, 2011
• Languages: English, German, Italian, Japanese, Russian, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Chinese (Simplified)
• Audiences: IT professionals
• Technology: Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011
• Credit toward certification: MCTS for Microsoft Dynamics

Configure a Microsoft Dynamics CRM organizational structure (15%)
Manage users, teams, and security (15%)
Customize attributes and entities (16%)
Customize relationships and mappings (15%)
Configure auditing (9%)
Manage forms, views, and charts (17%)
Implement a Microsoft Dynamics CRM solution (13%)
Instructor-led training
Who should take this exam?
This exam is intended for Microsoft Dynamics CRM Implementation Consultants and Customizers who will configure the application’s organizational settings and customize the application using built-in customization tools. Candidates must have a working knowledge of Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011 usage and of solving real-world business problems by using Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2011.

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Exam Name: Axis Network Video Exam
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NO.1 Which is a benefit of using VLANs and IP subnets?
A. An encrypted communication link is established over the internet, allowing surveillance video to be
securely viewed off-site
B. The network provides end-to-end encryption to prevent malicious users from intercepting network
traffic
C. The network will only allow access from authorized devices, eliminating the risk that malicious users
disconnect cameras to intercept network traffic
D. Network surveillance video can be kept separate from other network traffic, reducing the risk that
malicious users will intercept it
Answer: D

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NO.2 When initiating a surveillance project with a customer, which of the following should be considered first?
A. Understand which camera models to use
B. Understand the customer's technical knowledge
C. Understand the customer's goals and requirements
D. Understand the legal aspects for the installation
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which technology can a Video Management Software (VMS) partner incorporate to reduce the impact
on recorded video during server maintenance?
A. Local storage at the camera
B. Meta data stream
C. AXIS Camera Application Platform (ACAP)
D. SNMP
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which is true regarding the use of a smoked (tinted) dome instead of a clear dome?
A. Decreases color fidelity
B. Decreases field of view
C. Disables infrared capabilities
D. Reduces light sensitivity
Answer: D

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NO.5 In setting up PTZ control for an Axis encoder, it's very easy to overlook a very important step in the
configuration process. After properly connecting the communication wires to the encoder, the next
recommended step in the setup is:
A. Downloading the correct Device ID from the Axis website
B. Setting the Baud Rate to match the analog PTZ' s
C. Setting the Device ID to match the analog ID
D. Uploading the correct PTZ driver
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has a lot of motion blur on recordings from a fixed camera. What would be the most likely
setting to address the blurring?
A. Gain level
B. Brightness
C. Backlight compensation
D. Shutter speed
Answer: D

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NO.7 A company is looking for a dome designed to withstand vibrations inherent to transportation. Which of
the following cameras should be recommended?
A. AXIS P3344-VE
B. AXIS M3014
C. AXIS M3114-R
D. AXIS P1344
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true for H.264? (Choose two)
A. The size of an l-frame depends on the preceding P-frame
B. Increased motion in a scene means increased bit rate
C. Group of Video (GOV) length is directly affected by the sizes of the I- and P-frames
D. A P-frame references preceding and succeeding P-frames
E. Longer GOV length means reduced bit rate
Answer: B,E

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Featured SASInstitute certification A00-240 exam test questions and answers

NO.1 What is the default method in the LOGISTIC procedure to handle observations with missing
data?
A. Missing values are imputed.
B. Parameters are estimated accounting for the missing values.
C. Parameter estimates are made on all available data.
D. Only cases with variables that are fully populated are used.
Answer: D

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NO.2 This question will ask you to provide a missing option.
Complete the following syntax to test the homogeneity of variance assumption in the GLM
procedure:
Means Region / <insert option here> =levene;
A. test
B. adjust
C. var
D. hovtest
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company has branch offices in eight regions. Customers within each region are classified as
either "High Value" or "Medium Value" and are coded using the variable name VALUE. In the last
year, the total amount of purchases per customer is used as the response variable.
Suppose there is a significant interaction between REGION and VALUE. What can you conclude?
A. More high value customers are found in some regions than others.
B. The difference between average purchases for medium and high value customers depends on
the region.
C. Regions with higher average purchases have more high value customers.
D. Regions with higher average purchases have more medium value customers.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit:
The box plot was used to analyze daily sales data following three different ad campaigns.
The business analyst concludes that one of the assumptions of ANOVA was violated.
Which assumption has been violated and why?
A. Normality, because Prob > F < .0001.
B. Normality, because the interquartile ranges are different in different ad campaigns.
C. Constant variance, because Prob > F < .0001.
D. Constant variance, because the interquartile ranges are different in different ad campaigns.
Answer: D

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NO.5 In partitioning data for model assessment, which sampling methods are acceptable? (Choose
two.)
A. Simple random sampling without replacement
B. Simple random sampling with replacement
C. Stratified random sampling without replacement
D. Sequential random sampling with replacement
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 A linear model has the following characteristics:
*A dependent variable (y)
*One continuous variable (xl), including a quadratic term (x12)
*One categorical (d with 3 levels) predictor variable and an interaction term (d by x1)
How many parameters, including the intercept, are associated with this model?
Enter your numeric answer in the space below. Do not add leading or trailing spaces to your
answer.
Answer: 7

NO.7 A non-contributing predictor variable (Pr > |t| =0.658) is added to an existing multiple linear
regression model.
What will be the result?
A. An increase in R-Square
B. A decrease in R-Square
C. A decrease in Mean Square Error
D. No change in R-Square
Answer: A

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NO.8 The following LOGISTIC procedure output analyzes the relationship between a binary response
and an ordinal predictor variable, wrist_size Using reference cell coding, the analyst selects Large
(L) as the reference level.
What is the estimated logit for a person with large wrist size?
Click the calculator button to display a calculator if needed.
A. 0.0819
B. 0.5663
C. -3.7727
D. -1.0415
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A00-240
Exam Name: SAS Certified Statistical Business Analyst Using SAS 9: Regression and Modeling Credential
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A00-240 Real Questions Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 06-29,2015

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Free download Oracle certification 1Z0-820 exam practice questions and answers

Upgrade to Oracle Solaris 11 System Administrator
Exam Number: 1Z0-820 / 1Z0-820
Duration: 120 minutes
Associated Certifications: Oracle Certified Professional, Oracle Solaris 11 System Administrator , OPN Certified Specialist
Number of Questions: 75
Exam Product Version: Solaris 11 Administration,
Passing Score: 66%

Exam Price: US$ 150
Validated Against:
This exam has been validated against OS 11.

format: Multiple Choice


Recommended Training

• Transition to Oracle Solaris 11

Not available at this time.

TOPICS
Topics shown with an asterisk [*] below are not covered in the Transition to Oracle Solaris 11 course.
Refer to the Oracle Solaris 11 Information Library for more information.
Transitioning to Oracle Solaris 11

• Describe key considerations for transitioning from Oracle Solaris 10 to Oracle Solaris 11

Managing Software Packages in Oracle Solaris 11

• Describe the Image Packaging System (IPS)
• Plan for moving to IPS
• Configure a local package repository
• Configure network client systems to use IPS
• Manage packages using IPS
• *Manage signed packages and package properties
• Update the OS image by using IPS
• Publish a software package by using IPS
• Manage boot environments

Installing the Oracle Solaris 11 Operating System

• Describe Oracle Solaris 11 installation options
• Plan for an Oracle Solaris 11 installation
• Perform Attended and Unattended Installations
• Configure an AI server
• Configure an AI client
• Install Oracle Solaris 11 by using AI
• Compare a JumpStart OS installation to an AI OS installation
• Convert a JumpStart configuration to an AI configuration
• Describe the distribution constructor

Administering Oracle Solaris 11 Zones 

• Describe the new zone features and enhancements
• *Create a Solaris 11 zone
• *Log on and off, start up, shut down, and halt zones
• *Allocate system resources to a Solaris zone 
• *Identify current zone configuration and zone resource allocations on the system
• Configure a Solaris 10 zone
• Perform a virtual-to-virtual migration of zones present in the source system (V2V)
• Migrate a physical Solaris 10 system to a Solaris 10 zone (P2V) 
• Configure a non-global zone by using AI 
• Monitor zone resource consumption 
• Delegate zone administration 
• *Manage the Scheduling Class of a zone
• *Monitor the FSS
• *Configure the FSS 

Oracle Solaris 11 Network

• *Configure systems on a local network using the new facilities and commands
• Manage the network using new Solaris 11 management utilities
• *Configure NFS server and clients and administer NFS services
• Configure Network Auto-Magic (NWAM)
• Configure IPMP
• Configure network virtualization 
• Configure a network bridge
• Monitor the network using the new Solaris 11 network monitoring utilities

Oracle Solaris 11 Storage

• *Create, destroy and query a ZFS storage pool
• *Create, destroy and query a ZFS file system
• *Create, destroy and query a ZFS snapshot
• *Create and destroy a ZFS clone
• *Configure data backup and restore
• *Manage ZFS properties
• Describe the new storage features and enhancements
• Split a mirrored ZFS storage pool
• Identify ZFS snapshot differences
• Configure ZFS deduplication
• Configure COMSTAR
• Perform Shadow Migration

Oracle Solaris 11 Security

• Describe the new security features and enhancements
• Describe the Oracle Solaris cryptographic framework
• Encrypt ZFS data
• Use the Basic Audit Reporting Tool (BART) to audit system files
• *Configure Solaris Auditing
• *Configure and Use RBAC
• *Configure and manage privileges

Services and Processes

• *Configure SMF Services
• *Manage process scheduling priority

Monitoring and Troubleshooting

• *Monitor system resources
• *Configure system crash facilities
• *Configure dump facilities for business application failure

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Exam Code: 1Z0-820
Exam Name: Upgrade to Oracle Solaris 11 System Administrator
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1Z0-820 PDF VCE Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 06-29,2015

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