642-980 VCE Dumps, 642-035 Study Guide

Troubleshooting Cisco Unified Computing

Exam Number	642-035 DCUCT
Associated Certifications	CCNP Data Center Certification Cisco Unified Computing Support Specialist
Duration	90 minutes (65-75 questions)
Available Languages	English, Japanese
Register	Pearson VUE
Exam Policies	Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial	Review type of exam questions

The 642-035 Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Unified Computing exam tests a candidate's skills of troubleshooting a virtualized computing environment based on Cisco Unified Computing System platform, focusing on features like storage and network connectivity, installation, memory issues, booting issues, drivers, BIOS and adapters connectivity issues. This exam is associated with the CCNP DC Certification and Cisco Unified Computing Support Specialist Certification.
NO.1 Which CLI command can tell which switch is on the other side of port channel 2 that is trunking
VSAN 5?
A. show topology vsan 5
B. show interface port-channel 2 trunk vsan 5
C. show interface port-channel 2 vsan 5 peer-info
D. show fcs vsan 5
E. show fspf database vsan 5 interface port-channel 2
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which option describes whythe merge status for any application shows "In Progress" for a
prolonged period of time when a new switch is added to the fabric?
A. The new switch must be upgraded to match the same version of code as the original switch.
B. The ports between the switches are not trunking all VSANs.
C. The application needs to be started on both switches.
D. There are outstanding changes that must be committed.
E. The merge status cannot occur until a copy running-config startup-config is done.
Answer: D

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NO.3 To ensure thatDCBX can be run on a switch, which other feature must be enabled?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. LLDP
C. Fibre Channel
D. IEEE 802.1ad
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three statements are true about using the debug command to resolve an HSRP issue on
the Cisco Nexus platform? (Choose three.)
A. The debug command should be allowed to run for at least an hour.
B. The administrator can log debug messages to a special log file to avoid flooding the console.
C. Open a second Telnet or SSH session before you enter any debug commands so that if the debug
session overwhelms the console, you can stop the message output.
D. Use the debug command only under the guidance of Cisco Technical Support.
E. Use the Ethanalyzer remote interface command to capture packets.
F. The debug peer-gateway command should be used to isolate the problem.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit. Which two issues causeaproblemwith the implementation of an OTV
between data centers? (Choosetwo.)
A. incorrect control-group address
B. incorrect data-group range
C. overlapping control-group and data-ranges
D. incorrect MTU
E. incorrect IGMP version
Answer: C,E

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NO.6 In Cisco NX-OS releases prior to 5.2, how should the copp-system-p-policy policy be modified to
change how the supervisor module is protected from DoS attacks?
A. Modify the policy map type control-plane copp-system-policy.
B. Open DCNM and modify the "copp-system-p-policy" policy object.
C. Re-run the setup utility and apply a new CoPP profile.
D. In Cisco NX-OS versions prior to 5.2, the CoPP system profile can only be modified from the CMP
CLI.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are the minimum number and maximum number of members that a SAN PortChannel
can have?
A. 1, 16
B. 2, 16
C. 1, 32
D. 2, 32
E. 1 minimum with no maximum
F. 2 minimum with no maximum
Answer: A

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
When suspending or deleting VSANs, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete only one VSAN at a time.
B. You must wait 60 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another
command.
C. You must wait 120 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another
command.
D. You can unsuspend only one VSAN at a time.
E. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same domain.
F. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same zone.
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: 642-980
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric (DCUFT)
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NO.1 Which backup option defines a user-defined name for a backup?
A. FORMAT
B. NAME
C. TAG
D. FORMAT U%
Answer: C

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NO.2 The BOOKINGS table contains online booking information. When a booking is confirmed, the
details are transferred to an archival table BOOKINGS_HIST and deleted from the BOOKINGS table.
There is no fixed time interval between each online booking and its confirmation. Because sufficient
space is not always available from the delete operations the high-water mark (HWM) is moved up
and many rows are inserted below the HWM of the table. The BOOKINGS table has Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM) and row movement enabled. The table is accessible in 24x7
mode.
What is the most efficient method to reclaim the space released by the delete operations in the
BOOKINGS table
A. Perform EXPORT, DROP, and IMPORT operations on the BOOKINGS table sequentially
B. Shrink the BOOKINGS table by using the ALTER TABLE... SHRINK SPACE command
C. Move the BOOKINGS table to a different location by using the ALTER TABLE... MOVE command
D. Deallocate the space in the BOOKINGS table by using the ALTER TABLE ... DEALLOCATE UNUSED
command
Answer: B

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NO.3 If you use ALTER DISKGROUP ... ADD DISK and specify a wildcard for the discovery string, what
happens to disks that are already a part of the same or another disk group?
A. The command fails unless you specify the FORCE option.
B. The command fails unless you specify the REUSE option.
C. The command must be reissued with a more specific discovery string.
D. The other disks, already part of the disk group, are ignored.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Given a complete loss of your database, in what order would you need to perform the
following RMAN operations to restore it?
a.restore controlfile
b.restore database
c.restore spfile
d.recover database
e.alter database open
f.alter database open resetlogs
A.b, a, c, d, e
B.a, c, b, d, f
C.c, a, b, d, e
D.c, a, b, d, f
E.e, a, b, d, c
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your archive-log destination directory runs out of space. What is the impact of this on the
database?
A. None. The database will switch over to the stand-by archive-log destination directory.
B. A warning message will be written to the alert log of the database, but no adverse impacts to the
database will be experienced.
C. The database will shut down, and will not restart until you correct the out-of-space situation.
D. The database will continue to try to write to the archive-log destination directory for one hour.
After one hour, the database will shut down normally.
E. Once Oracle has cycled through all online redo logs, it will stop processing any DML or DDL until
the out-of-space condition is corrected.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Note the following parameter settings:
Which setting is NOT allowed?
A. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=50M;
B. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=10M;
C. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_4K_CACHE_SIZE=10M;
D. ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_16K_CACHE_SIZE=10M;
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Section: Initialization, Parameters, File Location & Server Configuration
http://www.akadia.com/services/ora_asm_multiple_block_sizes.html
db_block_size integer 8192 - is the db default so you can't have 8K subcache.

NO.7 View the Exhibit to examine the parameters set for your database instance.
You execute the following command to perform I/O calibration after the declaration of bind variables
in the session that are used in the command: SQL> EXECUTE dbms_resource_manager.calibrate_io(
num_physical_disks=>1, -max_latency=>50, -max_iops=>:max_iops, -max_mbps=>:max_mbps, -
actual_latency=>:actual_latency);
Which statement describes the consequence?
A. The command produces an error.
B. The calibration process runs successfully and populates all the bind variables.
C. The calibration process runs successfully but the latency time is not computed.
D. The calibration process runs successfully but only the latency time is computed.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Using Oracle Enterprise Manager to set SGA pool values manually, for which of the
following pools does Oracle EM offer advice to set the value appropriately? (Choose all that apply.)
A. DB_CACHE_SIZE
B. SHARED_POOL_SIZE
C. LARGE_POOL_SIZE
D. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
E. SGA_MAX_SIZE
F. SORT_AREA_SIZE
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 Which function key is used to start Safe Mode in Windows NT?
A. F10
B. F8
C. F6
D. Windows NT does not support Safe Mode
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following commands changes the ownership of file.txt to the user dan and the
group staff?
A. chown dan/staff file.txt
B. chown dan:staff file.txt
C. chown -u dan -g staff file.txt
D. chown dan -g staff file.txt
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which type of filesystem is created by mkfs when it is executed with the block device name only
and without any additional parameters?
A. ext2
B. ext3
C. ext4
D. XFS
E. VFAT
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following shell redirections will write standard output and standard error output
to a file named filename?
A. 2>&1 >filename
B. >filename 2>&1
C. 1>&2>filename
D. >>filename
E. 1&2>filename
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key
combination?
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following environment variables overrides or extends the list of directories holding
shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following commands displays the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf -
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf -
D. tar cf archive.tgz
Answer: B

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NO.8 Regarding the command:
nice -5 /usr/bin/prog
Whichof the following statements is correct?
A. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a nice level of -5.
B. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a nice level of 5.
C. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a priority of -5.
D. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a priority of 5.
Answer: B

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Bewertete Fähigkeiten
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NO.1 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains
two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature installed. The servers are
configured as nodes in an NLB cluster named Cluster1.
Port rules are configured for all clustered Applications.
You need to ensure that Server2 handles all client requests to the cluster that are NOT covered by a
port rule.
What should you configure?
A. Affinity-None
B. Affinity-Single
C. The cluster quorum settings
D. The failover settings
E. A file server for general use
F. The Handling priority
G. The host priority
H. Live migration
I. The possible owner
J. The preferred owner
K. Quick migration
L. The Scale-Out File Server
Answer: G

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Explanation:
Host Priorities Each cluster host is assigned a unique host priority in the range of 1 to 32, where lower
numbers denote higher priorities. The host with the highest host priority (lowest numeric value) is
called the default host. It handles all client traffic for the virtual IP addresses that is not specifically
intended to be load-balanced. This ensures that server applications not configured for load balancing
only receive client traffic on a single host. If the default host fails, the host with the next highest
priority takes over as default host.
Reference: Network Load Balancing Technical Overview
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb742455.aspx

NO.2 HOTSPOT
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains a single
domain.
The forest contains the domain controllers configured as shown in the following table.
Recently, a domain controller named DC4 was deployed to adatum.com. DC4 is in the Default-First-
Site-Name site.
The adatum.com site links are configured as follows.
The schedule for SiteLink1 is shown in the SiteLink1 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) The schedule
for SiteLink2 is shown in the SiteLink2 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Answer:

NO.3 You have a server named SCI that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes.
You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime.
Which tool should you use?
A. Shadow
B. Diskshadow
C. Wbadmin
D. Diskpart
Answer: B

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Explanation:
DiskShadow.exe is a tool that exposes the functionality offered by the Volume Shadow
Copy Service (VSS).
The diskshadow command delete shadows deletes shadow copies.
Reference: Technet, Diskshadow

NO.4 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains a single domain.
The forest contains three Active Directory sites named SiteA, SiteB, and SiteC.
The sites contain four domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the
following table.
An IP site link exits between each site.
You discover that the users in SiteC are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteA and SiteB.
You need to ensure that the SiteC users are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteB, unless
all of the domain controllers in SiteB are unavailable.
What should you do?
A. Create an SMTP site link between SiteB and SiteC.
B. Create additional connection objects for DC3 and DC4.
C. Decrease the cost of the site link between SiteB and SiteC.
D. Create additional connection objects for DC1 and DC2.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
By decreasing the site link cost between SiteB and SiteC the SiteC users would be authenticated by
SiteB rather than by SiteA.

NO.5 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Each day, Server1 is backed up fully to an external disk.
On Server1, the disk that contains the operating system fails.
You replace the failed disk.
You need to perform a bare-metal recovery of Server1 by using the Windows Recovery
Environment (Windows RE).
What should you do?
A. Run the Start-WBVolumeRecovery cmdlet and specify the -backupset parameter.
B. Run the Get-WBBareMetalRecovery cmdlet and specify the -policy parameter.
C. Run the wbadmin.exe start recovery command and specify the -recoverytarget parameter.
D. Run the wbadmin.exe start sysrecovery command and specify the -backuptarget parameter.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Performs a system recovery (bare metal recovery). This subcommand can be run only from the
Windows Recovery Environment.
* -backupTarget Specifies the storage location that contains the backup or backups that you want to
recover. This parameter is useful when the storage location is different from where backups of this
computer are usually stored.
Reference: Wbadmin start sysrecovery
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc742118.aspx

NO.6 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2.
You install the DHCP Server server role on Server1 and Server2. You install the IP
Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on Server1.
You notice that you cannot discover Server1 or Server2 in IPAM.
You need to ensure that you can use IPAM to discover the DHCP infrastructure.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. On Server2, create an IPv4 scope.
B. On Server1, run the Add-IpamServerInventory cmdlet.
C. On Server2, run the Add-DhcpServerInDc cmdlet
D. On both Server1 and Server2, run the Add-DhcpServerv4Policy cmdlet.
E. On Server1, uninstall the DHCP Server server role.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
B. The Add-IpamServerInventory cmdlet adds a new infrastructure server to the IP Address
Management (IPAM) server inventory. Use the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the server to
add to the server inventory.
C. The Add-DhcpServerInDC cmdlet adds the computer running the DHCP server service to the list of
authorized Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server services in the Active Directory (AD).
A DHCP server service running on a domain joined computer needs to be authorized in AD so that it
can start leasing IP addresses on the network.
Reference: Add-IpamServerInventory; Add-DhcpServerInDC

NO.7 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains
a single domain. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have a domain controller named DC1.
On DC1, you create a new Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. You need to verify that GPO1 was
replicated to all of the domain controllers.
Which tool should you use?
A. Group Policy Management
B. Active Directory Sites and Services
C. DFS Management
D. Active Directory Administrative Center
Answer: A

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Explanation:
In Windows Server 2012, the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) was enhanced to provide a
report for the overall health state of the Group Policy infrastructure for a domain, or to scope the
health view to a single GPO.
Reference: Check Group Policy Infrastructure Status
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134176.aspx

NO.8 Your network contains two DNS servers named DNS1 and DNS2 that run Windows Server 2012
R2.
DNS1 has a primary zone named contoso.com. DNS2 has a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone.
You need to log the zone transfer packets sent between DNS1 and DNS2.
What should you configure?
A. Monitoring from DNS Manager
B. Logging from Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
C. A Data Collector Set (DCS) from Performance Monitor
D. Debug logging from DNS Manager
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Debug logging allows you to log the packets sent and received by a DNS server. Debug logging is
disabled by default, and because it is resource intensive, you should only activate it temporarily when
you need more specific detailed information about server performance.
Reference: Active Directory 2008: DNS Debug Logging Facts.

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The Best Juniper JN0-633 exam practice questions and answers

Professional (JNCIP-SEC)
Prerequisite Cert: JNCIS-SEC
Objectives (Exam: JN0-633)
Training: Advanced Junos Security (AJSEC)
Junos Intrusion Prevention System Functionality (JIPS)
Software Documentation
Supplemental Resources
Day One Guides: Scaling Beyond a Single SRX in the Data Center
Learning Bytes: Various; see list below
Books: Reading list (below), as needed
Practice Test: To assess your skill level and to identify gaps in your knowledge, take this free Practice Test. This Practice Test can be taken as many times as you like until you are comfortable with the material.NO.1 Which action will allow an administrator to connect in band to an SRX Series device in
transparent mode over SSH?
A. Use a VLAN interface.
B. Use the loopback interface.
C. Use a logical interface.
D. Use an irb interface.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button. [edit] user@host# run show log debug
Feb3 22:04:31 22:04:31.824294:CID-0:RT:flow_first_policy_search: policy search from
zone host-> zone attacker (Ox0,0xe4089404,0x17)
Feb3 22:04:31 22:04:31.824297:CID-0:RT:Policy lkup: vsys 0 zone(9:host) ->
zone(10:attacker) scope: 0 Feb3 22:04:31 22:04:31.824770:CID-0:RT:5.0.0.25/59028 -> 25.0.0.25/23
proto 6 Feb3 22:04:31 22:04:31.824778:CID-0:RT:Policy lkup: vsys 0 zone(5:Umkmowm) ->
zone(5:Umkmowm) scope: 0 Feb3 22:04:31 22:04:31.824780:CID-0:RT:5.0.0.25/59028 ->
25.0.0.25/23 proto 6 Feb3 22:04:31 22:04:31.824783:CID-0:RT: app 10, timeout 1800s, curr ageout
20s Feb3 22:04:31 22:04:31.824785:CID-0:RT: permitted by policy default-policy-00(2) Feb3 22:04:31
22:04:31.824787:CID-0:RT: packet passed, Permitted by policy.
Feb3 22:04:31 22:04:31.824790:CID-0:RT:flow_first_src_xlate:
nat_src_xlated: False, nat_src_xlate_failed; False
Feb3 22:04:31 22:04:31.824834:CID-0:RT:flow_first_src_xlate: incoming src port is: 38118
Which two statements are true regarding the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The packet does not match any user-configured security policies.
B. The user has configured a security policy to allow the packet.
C. The log is showing the first path packet flow.
D. The log shows the reverse flow of the session.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are using the AppDoS feature to control against malicious bot client attacks. The bot clients
are using file downloads to attack your server farm. You have configured a context value rate of
10,000 hits in 60 seconds.At which threshold will the bot clients no longer be classified as malicious?
A. 5000 hits in 60 seconds
B. 8000 hits in 60 seconds
C. 7500 hits in 60 seconds
D. 9999 hits in 60 seconds
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference : http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/junos-security/junos-security10.0/junos-
security-
swconfig-security/appddos-protection-overview.html

NO.4 You have configured an IPsec VPN with traffic selectors; however, your IPsec tunnel does not
appear to be working properly.
What are two reasons for the problem? (Choose two.)
A. You are configured a remote address value of 0.0.0.0/0.
B. You are trying to use traffic selectors with policy-based VPNs.
C. You have configured 15 traffic selectors on each SRX Series device.
D. You are trying to use traffic selectors with route-based VPNs.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button. -- Exhibit-
-- Exhibit -
In the network shown in the exhibit, you want to forward traffic from the employees to ISP1 and
ISP2. You want to forward all Web traffic to ISP1 and all other traffic to ISP2. While troubleshooting,
you change your filter to forward all traffic to ISP1. However, no traffic is sent to ISP1.
What is causing this behavior?
A. The filter is applied to the wrong interface.
B. The filter should use the next-hop action instead of the routing-instance action.
C. The filter term does not have a required from statement.
D. The filter term does not have the accept statement.
Answer: A

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Reference:http://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=KB24821

NO.6 What are three techniques to mark DSCP values on an SRX Series device? (Choose three.)
A. IDP attack action-based DSCP rewriters
B. 802.11Q
C. VLAN rewrite
D. ALG-based DSCP rewriters
E. Layer 7 application-based DSCP rewriters.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 Your company provides managed services for two customers. Each customer has been
segregated within its own routing instance on your SRX device. Customer A and customer B inform
you that they need to be able to reach certain hosts on each other's network.
Which two configuration settings would be used to share routes between these routing instances?
(Choose two.)
A. routing-group
B. instance-import
C. import-rib
D. next-table
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
Reference :http://aconaway.com/2013/03/02/junos-logical-tunnel-interfaces-with-virtualrouters/

NO.8 Your company has added a connection to a new ISP and you have been asked to send specific
traffic to the new ISP.
You have decided to implement filter-based forwarding. You have configured new routing instances
with type forwarding.
You must direct traffic into each instance.Which step would accomplish this goal?
A. Add a firewall filter to the ingress interface that specifies the intended routing instance as the
action.
B. Create a routing policy to direct the traffic to the required forwarding instances.
C. Configure the ingress and egress interfaces in each forwarding instance.
D. Create a static default route for each ISP in inet.0, each pointing to a different forwarding instance.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Reference :http://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=KB17223

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Prüfung 70-483

Veröffentlicht: 12. Oktober 2012
Sprachen: Englisch, Chinesisch (vereinfacht), Französisch, Deutsch, Japanisch, Portugiesisch (Brasilien)
Zielgruppen: Entwickler
Technologie: Visual Studio 2012
Anrechnung für Zertifizierung: MCP, MCSD
Bewertete Fähigkeiten
Mit dieser Prüfung werden Ihre Fähigkeiten bei der Ausführung der unten aufgeführten technischen Aufgaben bewertet. Die Prozentangaben geben Aufschluss über die relative Gewichtung der einzelnen Schwerpunktthemen. Je höher der Prozentsatz, desto mehr Fragen zu diesem Bereich wird die Prüfung enthalten.
Bitte beachten Sie, dass die Prüfungsfragen sich auf die Themen in den nachfolgenden Aufzählungen beziehen, jedoch nicht darauf beschränkt sind.
Programmablauf verwalten (25 %)
Erstellen und Verwenden von Typen (24 %)
Debuggen von Anwendungen und Implementieren von Sicherheit (25 %)
Implementieren des Datenzugriffs (26 %)

NO.1 You are developing an application that includes the following code segment. (Line numbers
are included for reference only.)
You need to ensure that the application accepts only integer input and prompts the user each time
non-integer input is entered.
Which code segment should you add at line 19?
A. If (!int.TryParse(sLine, out number))
B. If ((number = Int32.Parse(sLine)) == Single.NaN)
C. If ((number = int.Parse(sLine)) > Int32.MaxValue)
D. If (Int32.TryParse(sLine, out number))
Answer: A

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Explanation:
B and C will throw exception when user enters non-integer value. D is exactly the opposite what we
want to achieve.
Int32.TryParse - Converts the string representation of a number to its 32-bit signed integer equivalent.
A return value indicates whether the conversion succeeded. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/f02979c7.aspx

NO.2 You need to create a method that can be called by using a varying number of parameters.
What should you use?
A. derived classes
B. interface
C. enumeration
D. method overloading
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Member overloading means creating two or more members on the same type that differ only in the
number or type of parameters but have the same name. Overloading is one of the most important
techniques for improving usability, productivity, and readability of reusable libraries. Overloading on
the number of parameters makes it possible to provide simpler versions of constructors and
methods. Overloading on the parameter type makes it possible to use the same member name for
members performing identical operations on a selected set of different types.

NO.3 You are developing a C# application. The application includes the following code segment, (Line
numbers are included for reference only.)
The application fails at line 17 with the following error message: "An item with the same key
has already been added."
You need to resolve the error.
Which code segment should you insert at line 16?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have an application that will send confidential information to a Web server.
You need to ensure that the data is encrypted when it is sent across the network.
Which class should you use?
A. CryptoStream
B. AuthenticatedStream
C. PipeStream
D. NegotiateStream
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are testing an application. The application includes methods named CalculateInterest and
LogLine.
The CalculateInterest() method calculates loan interest. The LogLine()
method sends diagnostic messages to a console window.
The following code implements the methods. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You have the following requirements:
- The Calculatelnterest() method must run for all build configurations.
- The LogLine() method must run only for debug builds.
You need to ensure that the methods run correctly.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. Insert the following code segment at line 01:
#region DEBUG
Insert the following code segment at line 10:
#endregion
B. Insert the following code segment at line 10:
[Conditional(MDEBUG")]
C. Insert the following code segment at line 05:
#region DEBUG
Insert the following code segment at line 07:
#endregion
D. Insert the following code segment at line 01:
#if DE30G
Insert the following code segment at line 10:
#endif
E. Insert the following code segment at line 01:
[Conditional(MDEBUG")]
F. Insert the following code segment at line 05:
#if DEBUG
Insert the following code segment at line 07:
#endif
G. Insert the following code segment at line 10: [Conditional("RELEASE")]
Answer: B,F

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Explanation:
#if DEBUG: The code in here won't even reach the IL on release.
[Conditional("DEBUG")]: This code will reach the IL, however the calls to the method will not execute
unless DEBUG is on.
http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3788605/if-debug-vs-conditionaldebug

NO.6 You are developing an application by using C#.
The application includes an object that performs a long running process.
You need to ensure that the garbage collector does not release the object's resources until the
process completes.
Which garbage collector method should you use?
A. WaitForFullGCComplete()
B. SuppressFinalize()
C. WaitForFullGCApproach()
D. WaitForPendingFinalizers()
Answer: B

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NO.7 DRAG DROP
You are developing a C# application. The application includes a class named Rate. The following code
segment implements the Rate class:
You define a collection of rates named rateCollection by using the following code segment:
Collection<Rate> rateCollection = new Collection<Rate>() ;
The application receives an XML file that contains rate information in the following format:
You need to parse the XML file and populate the rateCollection collection with Rate objects.
You have the following code: Which code segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2, Target 3
and Target 4 to complete the code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct
targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You
may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Answer:

NO.8 You are developing an application by using C#. The application includes the following code
segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
The DoWork() method must throw an InvalidCastException exception if the obj object is not of type
IDataContainer when accessing the Data property.
You need to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 07?
A. var dataContainer = (IDataContainer) obj;
B. var dataContainer = obj as IDataContainer;
C. var dataContainer = obj is IDataContainer;
D. dynamic dataContainer = obj;
Answer: A

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Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms173105.aspx

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