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There
are two exams associated with the VMware Certified Professional 5 – Data Center
Virtualization (VCP5-DCV) Certification. Select the appropriate exam for your
situation based on the information below and within the exam blueprint.
If you do not hold a current VCP certification, passing either the VCP550 or
VCP510 exam will earn VCP5-DCV certification if you have successfully completed
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If you are already VCP certified, passing the VCP550 will recertify you.
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2015年7月21日星期二
Exam FM0-308 VCE
NO.1 Which statement is true about the Filter Portal Records feature in
FileMaker Pro 13?
A. The portal filter formula must refer to at least one field in the immediately related table.
B. The feature requires one or more additional relationships to be added to the Relationships Graph.
C. The portal filter formula may not refer to any globally stored fields, summary fields, or unstored
calculation fields.
D. There can be one unique filter formula applied for each portal state (Normal State, In Focus,
Hover, or Pressed).
E. Aggregate functions (e.g., Sum, Count) based on the portal's relationship will not be affected by
the portal's filter formula.
Answer: E
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NO.2 Which two techniques could be used to successfully generate the data points for a pie chart?
(Choose two.)
A. Concatenate multiple number fields from the current record into a return-delimited list.
B. Set up multiple data series, each of which points to a number field in the current record.
C. Specify a summary field from a related set of records as the data series and put the chart in a
Subsummary layout part.
D. Specify a summary field from the current found set as the data series and put the chart in a
Leading Grand Summary layout part.
Answer: A,D
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NO.3 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 13?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B
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NO.4 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 13 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & " " & LastName
FirstName and LastName are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. A record is first created
B. Each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
C. A user selects the menu item Records> Relookup Field Contents
D. Any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. The FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E
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NO.5 Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
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NO.6 Which statement is true about a container field set to Store container data externally in
FileMaker 13?
A. Data will not be stored externally if the file is transferred to an iOS device and used via FileMaker
Go 13.
B. Externally stored container data will not be backed up by FileMaker Server 13 scheduled backup
routines.
C. When hosted on FileMaker Server, external container data must be stored in a subdirectory of
the database folder.
D. Externally stored container data will be embedded in the file when it is downloaded via the
Server Admin Console.
Answer: A
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NO.7 Which two FileMaker Pro 13 objects will display data contents even if unrelated to the current
layout's table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed timestamp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D
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NO.8 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 13? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but
not both.
Answer: D,E
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A. The portal filter formula must refer to at least one field in the immediately related table.
B. The feature requires one or more additional relationships to be added to the Relationships Graph.
C. The portal filter formula may not refer to any globally stored fields, summary fields, or unstored
calculation fields.
D. There can be one unique filter formula applied for each portal state (Normal State, In Focus,
Hover, or Pressed).
E. Aggregate functions (e.g., Sum, Count) based on the portal's relationship will not be affected by
the portal's filter formula.
Answer: E
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NO.2 Which two techniques could be used to successfully generate the data points for a pie chart?
(Choose two.)
A. Concatenate multiple number fields from the current record into a return-delimited list.
B. Set up multiple data series, each of which points to a number field in the current record.
C. Specify a summary field from a related set of records as the data series and put the chart in a
Subsummary layout part.
D. Specify a summary field from the current found set as the data series and put the chart in a
Leading Grand Summary layout part.
Answer: A,D
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NO.3 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 13?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B
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NO.4 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 13 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & " " & LastName
FirstName and LastName are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. A record is first created
B. Each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
C. A user selects the menu item Records> Relookup Field Contents
D. Any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. The FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E
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NO.5 Which three field options may be set for a shadow field from an External ODBC Data Source?
(Choose three.)
A. Validation: not empty
B. Validation: unique value
C. Validation: existing value
D. Auto-enter creation timestamp
E. Auto-enter serial number, on creation
F. Storage: automatically create indexes as needed
Answer: A,D,E
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NO.6 Which statement is true about a container field set to Store container data externally in
FileMaker 13?
A. Data will not be stored externally if the file is transferred to an iOS device and used via FileMaker
Go 13.
B. Externally stored container data will not be backed up by FileMaker Server 13 scheduled backup
routines.
C. When hosted on FileMaker Server, external container data must be stored in a subdirectory of
the database folder.
D. Externally stored container data will be embedded in the file when it is downloaded via the
Server Admin Console.
Answer: A
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NO.7 Which two FileMaker Pro 13 objects will display data contents even if unrelated to the current
layout's table occurrence? (Choose two.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed timestamp field
C. A text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored number field placed in a portal
E. A container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: A,D
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NO.8 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 13? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but
not both.
Answer: D,E
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To help you prepare for FM0-308 examination certification, we provide you with a sound knowledge and experience. The questions designed by ITCertMaster can help you easily pass the exam. The ITCertMaster FileMaker FM0-308 practice including FM0-308 Exam Questions and answers, FM0-308 test, FM0-308 books, FM0-308 study guide.
Exam Code: FM0-308
Exam Name: Developer Essentials for FileMaker 13
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IT certification candidates are mostly working people. Therefore, most of the candidates did not have so much time to prepare for the exam. But they need a lot of time to participate in the certification exam training courses. This will not only lead to a waste of training costs, more importantly, the candidates wasted valuable time. Here, I recommend a good learning materials website. Some of the test data on the site is free, but more importantly is that it provides a realistic simulation exercises that can help you to pass the FileMaker FM0-308 exam. ITCertMaster FileMaker FM0-308 exammaterials can not only help you save a lot of time. but also allows you to pass the exam successfully. So you have no reason not to choose it.
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Exam 74-697 VCE
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Candidates for this exam are IT professionals who are familiar with using the Microsoft Assessment and Deployment Kit (ADK) to manage and deploy Windows. These candidates install or assemble hardware with genuine preinstalled Windows 8, Windows Server 2012, and other supported Microsoft operating systems and/or additional applications such as Microsoft Office, Skype, and third-party applications. These candidates also create complete images for deployment to customer devices such as desktops, laptops, tablets, and servers.Candidates for this exam should have at least one year of experience managing day-to-day issues involving desktop and/or server deployment. Candidates should be familiar with the tools designed to deploy optimized hardware solutions for Microsoft platforms.
Exam 74-697 Topics:
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* Create, capture, and deploy images
* Manage deployments
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Candidates for this exam are IT professionals who are familiar with using the Microsoft Assessment and Deployment Kit (ADK) to manage and deploy Windows. These candidates install or assemble hardware with genuine preinstalled Windows 8, Windows Server 2012, and other supported Microsoft operating systems and/or additional applications such as Microsoft Office, Skype, and third-party applications. These candidates also create complete images for deployment to customer devices such as desktops, laptops, tablets, and servers.Candidates for this exam should have at least one year of experience managing day-to-day issues involving desktop and/or server deployment. Candidates should be familiar with the tools designed to deploy optimized hardware solutions for Microsoft platforms.
Exam 74-697 Topics:
* Prepare deployments
* Create, capture, and deploy images
* Manage deployments
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2015年7月20日星期一
ACMP-6.3 exam dumps
NO.1 What information do you need to generate a feature license key for an
Aruba controller?
A. The controller's MAC address and the feature description.
B. Controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. Controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. Controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
E. Controller's MAC address and Serial Number
Answer: D
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NO.2 Which command will show all client association history?
A. Aruba-6000# show mobile trail current (ip address)
B. Aruba-6000# show ip mobile trail (ip address)
C. Aruba-6000# show ap client status (mac address)
D. Aruba-6000# show current client ip (ip address)
E. Aruba-6000# show client ip (ip address) mobility
Answer: B
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NO.3 Which command, when executed on a master controller, will show the APs connected to all
controllers?
A. show stm connectivity
B. show ap active
C. show ap database
D. show ap bss-table
E. show ap controller-lms
Answer: C
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NO.4 A client device associates with an SSID provisioned with 802.1X authentication. The client is
set for LEAP authentication. EAP termination (AAA Fastconnect) is enabled on the controller. But the
client continuously cycles through the authentication process. Which of the following could cause
this?
A. The Radius server is rejecting the client credentials.
B. The client has an expired or revoked server certificate.
C. The DHCP server is not enabled.
D. The VLAN is missing for the SSID.
E. The controller does not support LEAP in this mode.
Answer: E
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NO.5 What settings need to be changed on a factory default AP in order for it to use ADP to discover
the Aruba Controller?
A. DNS of the controller
B. Static route
C. AP group
D. enable multicast
E. no changes needed
Answer: E
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NO.6 What can an AM do that an AP cannot do?
A. Detect rogue APs
B. Detect an AP failure
C. Scans all channels in under 1 minute
D. Detect interfering APs
E. Scan all valid channels
Answer: C
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NO.7 An administrator wants to assign a VLAN to a user based upon the authentication process
using Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA). Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attribute (VSA) values
provisioned?
A. controller
B. client
C. RADIUS server
D. Internal user database
E. Option 60 of DHCP reply
Answer: C
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NO.8 If a Remote AP (RAP) is attempting to contact a controller that is behind a NAT device what
protocol must be allowed through the NAT/Firewall?
A. PAPI
B. NATT
C. IPSec
D. SSH
E. GRE
Answer: B
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Exam Code: ACMP-6.3
Exam Name: Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.3
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Updated: 07-20,2015
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A. The controller's MAC address and the feature description.
B. Controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. Controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. Controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
E. Controller's MAC address and Serial Number
Answer: D
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NO.2 Which command will show all client association history?
A. Aruba-6000# show mobile trail current (ip address)
B. Aruba-6000# show ip mobile trail (ip address)
C. Aruba-6000# show ap client status (mac address)
D. Aruba-6000# show current client ip (ip address)
E. Aruba-6000# show client ip (ip address) mobility
Answer: B
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NO.3 Which command, when executed on a master controller, will show the APs connected to all
controllers?
A. show stm connectivity
B. show ap active
C. show ap database
D. show ap bss-table
E. show ap controller-lms
Answer: C
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NO.4 A client device associates with an SSID provisioned with 802.1X authentication. The client is
set for LEAP authentication. EAP termination (AAA Fastconnect) is enabled on the controller. But the
client continuously cycles through the authentication process. Which of the following could cause
this?
A. The Radius server is rejecting the client credentials.
B. The client has an expired or revoked server certificate.
C. The DHCP server is not enabled.
D. The VLAN is missing for the SSID.
E. The controller does not support LEAP in this mode.
Answer: E
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NO.5 What settings need to be changed on a factory default AP in order for it to use ADP to discover
the Aruba Controller?
A. DNS of the controller
B. Static route
C. AP group
D. enable multicast
E. no changes needed
Answer: E
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NO.6 What can an AM do that an AP cannot do?
A. Detect rogue APs
B. Detect an AP failure
C. Scans all channels in under 1 minute
D. Detect interfering APs
E. Scan all valid channels
Answer: C
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NO.7 An administrator wants to assign a VLAN to a user based upon the authentication process
using Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA). Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attribute (VSA) values
provisioned?
A. controller
B. client
C. RADIUS server
D. Internal user database
E. Option 60 of DHCP reply
Answer: C
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NO.8 If a Remote AP (RAP) is attempting to contact a controller that is behind a NAT device what
protocol must be allowed through the NAT/Firewall?
A. PAPI
B. NATT
C. IPSec
D. SSH
E. GRE
Answer: B
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Exam Code: ACMP-6.3
Exam Name: Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.3
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Updated: 07-20,2015
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HP HP2-E59 the latest certification exam training materials
NO.1 Why does HP use the term polymorphic storage to describe HP 3PAR
StoreServ storage?
A. Because it is future proof in that it exists in several forms and can grow with freedom in any
direction
B. Because it includes patented variable chunking with intelligent container matching for faster
backups
C. Because it can achieve twice the VM density in physical VMware vSphere environments
D. Because it reduces storage capacity by up to 50% thus increasing free disk capacity, while
decreasing service and support costs
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Unlike the dozens of fragmented storage products provided by other vendors, HP Converged Storage
provides a single storage system architecture with common data services for block, object and file
applications-delivering "polymorphic" simplicity-capable of meeting any need at any scale.
Note: Polymorphic Existence in several forms, shapes, & sizes
Redefining Storage Simplicity with HP Converged Storage
NO.2 Which statement about types of care available from HP Technology Services is true?
A. HP Foundation care offers only hardware services while HP Core Services care offers hardware
and software services.
B. HP Reactive care offers only the standard warranty and on site services while HP Core Services
care offers full solution support
C. HP Foundation care offers only reactive support while HP Proactive care offers reactive support
and proactive support.
D. HP BreakFix care offers only hardware repairs while HP Core Services care offers software and
hardware support.
Answer: C
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NO.3 What does ease of integration mean as one of the important IT trends for small and medium
business?
A. Full integration between security, ease of use, and scalability in computing
B. Integration toward the right computing environment to meet future requirements
C. Integration toward simplified growth with cost controls
D. A totally integrated solution across server, storage, and network infrastructures
Answer: B
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Explanation:
HP Transformation and Integration Services:
*HP Transformation and Integration Services provides consulting, custom development and
integration services to bring your IT services up to date with modern architectures and platforms.
*We modernize your applications to create a streamlined, agile environment that adapts quickly to
business needs.
*Transformation and Integration Services transforms your application environment to modern
platforms and architectures. We assess your IT environment to determine what you have and the
strategic value of your applications portfolio to the business. Then we help you transform to reach
your agility goals.
NO.4 Your healthcare customer wants to add a separate location for a family practice. They want
the new location to have seamless integration into the main location network and support a
maximum of five users. Which cost-effective HP networking solution should you recommend?
A. HP FlexManagement with an HP OfficeConnect switch
B. HP FlexFabric with an HP 2920 series switch
C. HP FlexFabric with an HP M220 access point
D. HP FlexBranch with an HP MSR930-series router
Answer: A
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Explanation:
HP OfficeConnect switch is for the small home or business network.
NO.5 What is the difference between a network switch and a network router?
A. A network switch connects devices for communication via Ethernet; a network router connects
networks to enable communication between them.
B. A network switch enables device connections over wireless networks; a network router enables
network communications over wireless networks.
C. A network switch enables multiple devices to share the same monitors; a network router enables
devices to use multiple monitors.
D. A network switch connects networks to enable communication; a network router connects
devices for communication over Ethernet.
Answer: A
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NO.6 What is the difference between computer memory and computer storage?
A. Computer memory is the storage hierarchy; computer storage is a subset of the computer
memory.
B. Computer memory handles data from input devices; computer storage handles data from output
devices.
C. Computer memory is the fast, volatile data-retention technologies; computer storage is the
slower, permanent data-retention technologies.
D. Computer memory includes the arithmetic unit of the CPU; computer storage includes the
control unit of the CPU.
Answer: C
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NO.7 Which benefit does an HP Care Pack offer that the HP standard product warranty does not?
A. Firmware and software upgrades
B. Replacement of defective parts
C. Support outside of standard business hours
D. Troubleshooting support
Answer: D
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Explanation:
HP Care Pack Service include: Software Technical Support Receive software support for HP and
select third-party vendors directly from experienced response center engineers. HP Software
Support Service provides comprehensive software services for HP software and select third-party
products.
Reference: http://h71016.www7.hp.com/html/helpmechoose/carepacks/care_packs_psg.asp
NO.8 Which HP series of network switches is unmanaged?
A. HP 1400-series switches
B. HP 1800-series switches
C. HP 1900-senes switches
D. HP 2500-series switches
Answer: A
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Explanation:
The HP 1410 Switch series swicthes are fixed configuration fanless, unmanaged Gigabit and Fast
Ethernet switches.
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Exam Code: HP2-E59
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A. Because it is future proof in that it exists in several forms and can grow with freedom in any
direction
B. Because it includes patented variable chunking with intelligent container matching for faster
backups
C. Because it can achieve twice the VM density in physical VMware vSphere environments
D. Because it reduces storage capacity by up to 50% thus increasing free disk capacity, while
decreasing service and support costs
Answer: A
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Explanation:
Unlike the dozens of fragmented storage products provided by other vendors, HP Converged Storage
provides a single storage system architecture with common data services for block, object and file
applications-delivering "polymorphic" simplicity-capable of meeting any need at any scale.
Note: Polymorphic Existence in several forms, shapes, & sizes
Redefining Storage Simplicity with HP Converged Storage
NO.2 Which statement about types of care available from HP Technology Services is true?
A. HP Foundation care offers only hardware services while HP Core Services care offers hardware
and software services.
B. HP Reactive care offers only the standard warranty and on site services while HP Core Services
care offers full solution support
C. HP Foundation care offers only reactive support while HP Proactive care offers reactive support
and proactive support.
D. HP BreakFix care offers only hardware repairs while HP Core Services care offers software and
hardware support.
Answer: C
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NO.3 What does ease of integration mean as one of the important IT trends for small and medium
business?
A. Full integration between security, ease of use, and scalability in computing
B. Integration toward the right computing environment to meet future requirements
C. Integration toward simplified growth with cost controls
D. A totally integrated solution across server, storage, and network infrastructures
Answer: B
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Explanation:
HP Transformation and Integration Services:
*HP Transformation and Integration Services provides consulting, custom development and
integration services to bring your IT services up to date with modern architectures and platforms.
*We modernize your applications to create a streamlined, agile environment that adapts quickly to
business needs.
*Transformation and Integration Services transforms your application environment to modern
platforms and architectures. We assess your IT environment to determine what you have and the
strategic value of your applications portfolio to the business. Then we help you transform to reach
your agility goals.
NO.4 Your healthcare customer wants to add a separate location for a family practice. They want
the new location to have seamless integration into the main location network and support a
maximum of five users. Which cost-effective HP networking solution should you recommend?
A. HP FlexManagement with an HP OfficeConnect switch
B. HP FlexFabric with an HP 2920 series switch
C. HP FlexFabric with an HP M220 access point
D. HP FlexBranch with an HP MSR930-series router
Answer: A
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Explanation:
HP OfficeConnect switch is for the small home or business network.
NO.5 What is the difference between a network switch and a network router?
A. A network switch connects devices for communication via Ethernet; a network router connects
networks to enable communication between them.
B. A network switch enables device connections over wireless networks; a network router enables
network communications over wireless networks.
C. A network switch enables multiple devices to share the same monitors; a network router enables
devices to use multiple monitors.
D. A network switch connects networks to enable communication; a network router connects
devices for communication over Ethernet.
Answer: A
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NO.6 What is the difference between computer memory and computer storage?
A. Computer memory is the storage hierarchy; computer storage is a subset of the computer
memory.
B. Computer memory handles data from input devices; computer storage handles data from output
devices.
C. Computer memory is the fast, volatile data-retention technologies; computer storage is the
slower, permanent data-retention technologies.
D. Computer memory includes the arithmetic unit of the CPU; computer storage includes the
control unit of the CPU.
Answer: C
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NO.7 Which benefit does an HP Care Pack offer that the HP standard product warranty does not?
A. Firmware and software upgrades
B. Replacement of defective parts
C. Support outside of standard business hours
D. Troubleshooting support
Answer: D
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Reference: http://h71016.www7.hp.com/html/helpmechoose/carepacks/care_packs_psg.asp
NO.8 Which HP series of network switches is unmanaged?
A. HP 1400-series switches
B. HP 1800-series switches
C. HP 1900-senes switches
D. HP 2500-series switches
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NO.1 You deploy an image of Windows 8 to 500 client computers that will be shipped to a customer.
You start one of the computers and verify that the Windows Welcome screen is displayed.
You need to restart the computer in audit mode.
Which keyboard shortcut should you use?
A. CTRL+SHIFT+ESC
B. WIN + D
C. CTRL+SHIFT+F3
D. CTRL+ALT+TAB
Answer: C
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NO.2 You work for an OEM system builder.
A technician applies a generalized image of Windows 8 to a client computer, and then
shuts down the computer.
You need to configure the computer for push-button reset.
What should you do first?
A. Start the computer from Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE), and then run
sysprep.exe /oobe.
B. Start the computer, and then complete the installation of Windows 8.
C. Start the computer, and then shut down the computer when Windows Welcome appears.
D. Start the computer from Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE), and then run
wbadmin.exe.
Answer: C
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NO.3 You have a server named Server1that runs Windows Server 2012.
You plan to install the Windows Deployment Services server role onServer1to deploy images to the
client computers of your customers.
You need to identify what must be deployed to the network before you can deploy images by using
Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
What should you identify?
A. the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. a domain controller
C. the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)
D. a DHCP server
Answer: D
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NO.4 You create a Windows 8 image named Custom.wim.
You deploy the image to several client computers.
You need to ensure that Custom.wim can be used when a user launches a restore process
from the Windows recovery tools.
How should you rename Custom.wim before you copy the image to the restore partition?
A. Install.wim
B. Boot.wim
C. Winpe.wim
D. Winre.wim
Answer: A
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NO.5 The customer currently has four client computers that have a Full Packaged Product (FPP)
version of Windows 7 Ultimate.
The customer plans to install Windows 8 on the four computers.
You need to recommend a Windows 8 licensing solution for the 24 computers. The solution must
minimize licensing costs.
What should you recommend?
A. 20 FPP licenses for Windows 8 and four OEM licenses for Windows 8
B. 20 OEM licenses for Windows 8 and four FPP licenses for Windows 8
C. 24 OEM licenses for Windows 8 with Software Assurance
D. 24 OEM licenses for Windows 8
Answer: B
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NO.6 You need to apply a hotfix to a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image by
using Dism.
Which parameter should you use?
A. /Enable-Feature
B. /Add-Driver
C. /Set-Edition
D. /Add-Package
Answer: D
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NO.7 You work for an OEM system builder named Fabrikam, Inc.
You plan to deploy an image from a network share.
You need to ensure that when Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) starts, Plug and
Play devices are installed, settings in Unattend.xml are applied, and network resources are loaded.
Which command should you execute from Startnet.cmd?
A. wpeinit.exe
B. drvload.exe
C. netsh.exe
D. winpeshl.exe
Answer: A
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NO.8 Your company is introducing a new line of computers.
All of the computers use Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI).
You need to create a partition that includes the Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE).
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. Set the partition Type to Primary.
B. Set the partition Type to EFI.
C. Set the partition TypeID to 0x27.
D. Set the partition TypeID to de94bba4-06d1-4d40-al6a-bfd50179d6ac
E. Set the partition Type to MSR.
F. Set the partition TypeID to 0x07.
Answer: A,D
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- Published: July 1, 2013
- Languages: English, Japanese
- Audiences: IT professionals, OEM partners
- Technology: Windows 8
- Credit toward certification: MCP, Specialist
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NO.1 You deploy an image of Windows 8 to 500 client computers that will be shipped to a customer.
You start one of the computers and verify that the Windows Welcome screen is displayed.
You need to restart the computer in audit mode.
Which keyboard shortcut should you use?
A. CTRL+SHIFT+ESC
B. WIN + D
C. CTRL+SHIFT+F3
D. CTRL+ALT+TAB
Answer: C
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NO.2 You work for an OEM system builder.
A technician applies a generalized image of Windows 8 to a client computer, and then
shuts down the computer.
You need to configure the computer for push-button reset.
What should you do first?
A. Start the computer from Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE), and then run
sysprep.exe /oobe.
B. Start the computer, and then complete the installation of Windows 8.
C. Start the computer, and then shut down the computer when Windows Welcome appears.
D. Start the computer from Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE), and then run
wbadmin.exe.
Answer: C
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NO.3 You have a server named Server1that runs Windows Server 2012.
You plan to install the Windows Deployment Services server role onServer1to deploy images to the
client computers of your customers.
You need to identify what must be deployed to the network before you can deploy images by using
Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
What should you identify?
A. the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. a domain controller
C. the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)
D. a DHCP server
Answer: D
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NO.4 You create a Windows 8 image named Custom.wim.
You deploy the image to several client computers.
You need to ensure that Custom.wim can be used when a user launches a restore process
from the Windows recovery tools.
How should you rename Custom.wim before you copy the image to the restore partition?
A. Install.wim
B. Boot.wim
C. Winpe.wim
D. Winre.wim
Answer: A
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NO.5 The customer currently has four client computers that have a Full Packaged Product (FPP)
version of Windows 7 Ultimate.
The customer plans to install Windows 8 on the four computers.
You need to recommend a Windows 8 licensing solution for the 24 computers. The solution must
minimize licensing costs.
What should you recommend?
A. 20 FPP licenses for Windows 8 and four OEM licenses for Windows 8
B. 20 OEM licenses for Windows 8 and four FPP licenses for Windows 8
C. 24 OEM licenses for Windows 8 with Software Assurance
D. 24 OEM licenses for Windows 8
Answer: B
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NO.6 You need to apply a hotfix to a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image by
using Dism.
Which parameter should you use?
A. /Enable-Feature
B. /Add-Driver
C. /Set-Edition
D. /Add-Package
Answer: D
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NO.7 You work for an OEM system builder named Fabrikam, Inc.
You plan to deploy an image from a network share.
You need to ensure that when Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) starts, Plug and
Play devices are installed, settings in Unattend.xml are applied, and network resources are loaded.
Which command should you execute from Startnet.cmd?
A. wpeinit.exe
B. drvload.exe
C. netsh.exe
D. winpeshl.exe
Answer: A
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NO.8 Your company is introducing a new line of computers.
All of the computers use Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI).
You need to create a partition that includes the Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE).
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. Set the partition Type to Primary.
B. Set the partition Type to EFI.
C. Set the partition TypeID to 0x27.
D. Set the partition TypeID to de94bba4-06d1-4d40-al6a-bfd50179d6ac
E. Set the partition Type to MSR.
F. Set the partition TypeID to 0x07.
Answer: A,D
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2015年7月19日星期日
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NO.1 What is a valid deduplication chunk size?
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C. 32K
D. 256K
Answer: C
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NO.2 A system administrator needs to optimize the use of solid state disks in a data center by
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Using Veritas Operation Manager (VOM) to configure SmartTier, which Canned File Placement Policy
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B. Update age-based
C. I/O activity-based
D. Access age-based with preferred files
Answer: C
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NO.3 Hot-relocation is available for which two types of volume layouts? (Select two.)
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B. striped-mirror
C. striped with parity
D. concatenated with hot standby disk
E. striped with hot standby disk
Answer: B,C
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A. Volume I/O could degrade significantly.
B. Writes to the volume could be blocked.
C. The volume could be stopped until the disk drive is replaced.
D. Any other disk failure could result in loss of data.
Answer: D
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NO.5 Which command is used to view the datadg disk group configuration that would be restored
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A. vxconfigrestore -l datadg
B. vxconfigrestore -c datadg
C. vxconfigrestore -v datadg
D. vxconfigrestore -p datadg
Answer: D
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NO.6 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A. vxedit
B. vxassist
C. vxremove
D. vxevac
E. vxmirror
Answer: A,B
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NO.7 Which three tasks does the vxassist utility help perform? (Select three.)
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B. reconfiguring DST rules
C. configuring DMP
D. creating mirrors
E. reconfiguring volumes
Answer: B,C,E
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NO.8 Which Veritas Volume Manager command permanently removes a disk from Volume Manager
control?
A. vxvolunsetup
B. vxdg deport
C. vxdiskunsetup
D. vxdisk init
Answer: C
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A. 1K
B. 2K
C. 32K
D. 256K
Answer: C
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NO.2 A system administrator needs to optimize the use of solid state disks in a data center by
automatically allocating them to files that are frequently accessed and that require high throughput.
Using Veritas Operation Manager (VOM) to configure SmartTier, which Canned File Placement Policy
should be configured to optimize the use of solid state disks?
A. Access age-based
B. Update age-based
C. I/O activity-based
D. Access age-based with preferred files
Answer: C
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NO.3 Hot-relocation is available for which two types of volume layouts? (Select two.)
A. striped
B. striped-mirror
C. striped with parity
D. concatenated with hot standby disk
E. striped with hot standby disk
Answer: B,C
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NO.4 What is the potential negative side effect of performing a forced removal of an intermittently
failing disk from a two-way mirrored volume?
A. Volume I/O could degrade significantly.
B. Writes to the volume could be blocked.
C. The volume could be stopped until the disk drive is replaced.
D. Any other disk failure could result in loss of data.
Answer: D
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NO.5 Which command is used to view the datadg disk group configuration that would be restored
from a backup?
A. vxconfigrestore -l datadg
B. vxconfigrestore -c datadg
C. vxconfigrestore -v datadg
D. vxconfigrestore -p datadg
Answer: D
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NO.6 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A. vxedit
B. vxassist
C. vxremove
D. vxevac
E. vxmirror
Answer: A,B
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NO.7 Which three tasks does the vxassist utility help perform? (Select three.)
A. creating volumes
B. reconfiguring DST rules
C. configuring DMP
D. creating mirrors
E. reconfiguring volumes
Answer: B,C,E
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NO.8 Which Veritas Volume Manager command permanently removes a disk from Volume Manager
control?
A. vxvolunsetup
B. vxdg deport
C. vxdiskunsetup
D. vxdisk init
Answer: C
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greater than 1.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
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B. PowerCenter requires an Eclipse Java Development Environment for the Java transformation
C. No Third Party Java API's are supported in the Java transformation
D. The Java transformation icon in PowerCenter Designer resembles a coffee bean
Answer: A
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A. infasetup
B. infacmd
C. pmcmd
D. pmrep
Answer: C
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NO.4 A workflow has a session task. Both workflow and session each have been assigned a different
parameter file. Which value will be set for $$ParameterValue in the session when using the following
two parameter files?"
Workflow Parameter file:
[Global] $$ParameterValue=l
[Session] $ $ParameterValue=2
Session Parameter file:
[Global] $$ParameterValue=3
[Session] $ $ParameterValue=4
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
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domain, node 1 is a gateway node and node 2 is a worker node. The PowerCenter Repository Service
is running on the worker node.
A. The user connects directly and immediately to the Repository Service
B. The user connects to the service manager of the gateway node, and after authentication and
authorization, is re- Assigned to the Repository Service
C. The user connects to the service manager of the worker node that is running the Repository
Service, is then authenticated, authorized, and connected to the PowerCenter Repository Service
D. The user first connects to the PowerCenter Integration Service and then after authentication and
authorization, is connected to the PowerCenter Repository Service
Answer: B
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NO.6 An Unconnected Stored Procedure can run in the following fashions?(Choose all that apply)
Choose 3 answers
A. From an expression
B. As a Post-Session SQL command
C. As a Pre-Session SQL command
D. As the only object In the mapping
Answer: A,B,C
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NO.7 Which attributes of a reusable Expression transformation can be edited within the Mapping
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A. The transformation's name, one of its port's default values, the tracing level or a Metadata
Extension
B. The transformation's name or the tracing level
C. The transformation's name, one of its port's default values or the tracing level
D. The transformation's name is the only attribute that can be changed
Answer: B
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A. A UDF name can contain letters, numbers and underscores
B. Can be used in mappings and transformations however not in mapplets
C. Can be reused from a shared folder as shortcut
D. Can contain Java code snippets
Answer: A
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NO.1 A Pipeline Normalizer transformation will reflect one input port for each occurs value which Is
greater than 1.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
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NO.2 Referring to the Java transformation: select the statement below which is correct and true.
A. The Integration Service starts a JVM that executes the byte code to process data
B. PowerCenter requires an Eclipse Java Development Environment for the Java transformation
C. No Third Party Java API's are supported in the Java transformation
D. The Java transformation icon in PowerCenter Designer resembles a coffee bean
Answer: A
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NO.3 Which command line tool would you use to execute a workflow?
A. infasetup
B. infacmd
C. pmcmd
D. pmrep
Answer: C
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NO.4 A workflow has a session task. Both workflow and session each have been assigned a different
parameter file. Which value will be set for $$ParameterValue in the session when using the following
two parameter files?"
Workflow Parameter file:
[Global] $$ParameterValue=l
[Session] $ $ParameterValue=2
Session Parameter file:
[Global] $$ParameterValue=3
[Session] $ $ParameterValue=4
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
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NO.5 Of the statements below, which best describes the underlying process taken when a user
connects to a PowerCenter Repository Service for the first time? For the puposes of this question, the
PowerCenter Developer is the only PowerCenter client application running, there are 2 nodes in the
domain, node 1 is a gateway node and node 2 is a worker node. The PowerCenter Repository Service
is running on the worker node.
A. The user connects directly and immediately to the Repository Service
B. The user connects to the service manager of the gateway node, and after authentication and
authorization, is re- Assigned to the Repository Service
C. The user connects to the service manager of the worker node that is running the Repository
Service, is then authenticated, authorized, and connected to the PowerCenter Repository Service
D. The user first connects to the PowerCenter Integration Service and then after authentication and
authorization, is connected to the PowerCenter Repository Service
Answer: B
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NO.6 An Unconnected Stored Procedure can run in the following fashions?(Choose all that apply)
Choose 3 answers
A. From an expression
B. As a Post-Session SQL command
C. As a Pre-Session SQL command
D. As the only object In the mapping
Answer: A,B,C
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NO.7 Which attributes of a reusable Expression transformation can be edited within the Mapping
Designer workspace?
A. The transformation's name, one of its port's default values, the tracing level or a Metadata
Extension
B. The transformation's name or the tracing level
C. The transformation's name, one of its port's default values or the tracing level
D. The transformation's name is the only attribute that can be changed
Answer: B
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NO.8 Which statement is correct regarding User-Defined Functions (UDF)?
A. A UDF name can contain letters, numbers and underscores
B. Can be used in mappings and transformations however not in mapplets
C. Can be reused from a shared folder as shortcut
D. Can contain Java code snippets
Answer: A
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2015年7月17日星期五
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storage capacity.
The following information was gathered from the customer:
- 2 TB full backup @ 5x compression
- 10% daily data change rate
- 4 incremental/week @ 10x compression
- 1x full per week @ 25x compression
- Retention period = 4 weeks with no data growth
What is the minimum amount of storage needed to support this solution?
A. 850 GB
B. 900 GB
C. 1040 GB
D. 1200 GB
Answer: C
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transported daily from the primary data center to the third-party facility.
They are experiencing high backup job failures with backup success rates of approximately 65%. In
addition, their time to disaster recovery readiness for backups is greater than 24 hours. The retention
period for database backups from disk-based backup is 4 weeks.
The customer is looking for a solution that will meet the following requirements:
Oracle DBA to manage backups through Oracle RMAN Backup their file system data using EMC
backup software Perform monthly full backups directly to physical tapes for offsite storage Reduce
the backup window to the possible maximum Increase the time to disaster recovery readiness.
Increase the retention period for database backups from disk-based backup to 6 weeks No additional
WAN bandwidth requirements Low TCO solution Free up the Fiber Channel switch infrastructure
Increase operational efficiency
Refer to Scenario .
The customer is considering using an EMC Data Domain system. They would like to know which Data
Domain protocol will meet their requirements.
What should be recommended?
A. DD Boost
B. NDMP
C. AFTD
D. VTL
Answer: A
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NO.3 You are designing a Data Protection Advisor (DPA) solution to support a NAS environment. The
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clients, and 300 Symantec NetBackup clients.
What are the appropriate DPA licensing requirements?
A. Backup option for 500 clients and one file server option for each NAS system
B. Backup option for 185 NetWorker and 300 NetBackup clients, and 1 Celerra, and 1 NetApp client
C. Backup option for 500 clients and a single file server option for the NAS systems
D. Backup option for required client count, a Celerra file server, and a NetApp file server option
Answer: A
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NO.4 An EMC Avamar customer wants to start backing up their VMware environment. The
customer's goal is to obtain the highest level of data deduplication support for file system and
application backups. In addition, they do not want to have to train their administrators on a new
backup method.
Which method of VMware backup will meet the customer's needs?
A. Install an Avamar agent on each guest OS
B. Install the Avamar agent on the ESX server console
C. Use a snapshot mounted to a proxy server over the SAN
D. Use VMware Consolidated Backup
Answer: A
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NO.5 A new EMC NetWorker customer has decided to use the traditional licensing model even
though they have a large number of licenses that they will need to load. Which option is available to
quickly install these licenses?
A. Download an nsradmin file from Powerlink and import the file
B. Download a text file of license keys and import through the NetWorker Management Console
C. Check for licenses automatically with the License Conformance Reporter
D. Copy and paste the licenses from the automatically generated e-mail
Answer: A
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NO.6 What is a reason for implementing EMC Data Protection Advisor (DPA) in a DPA clustered
architecture?
A. Restrict customer access to specific DPA application nodes
B. Use virtual machines for all DPA application servers
C. Power up a standby DPA application server automatically
D. Enable replication between DPA application servers
Answer: A
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NO.7 An EMC Avamar customer has a heavily utilized ESX system CPU utilization is a concern. Each
guest system, all of which are Linux must be backed up with file granularity. The customer has both
Avamar and NetWorker available and is looking to EMC for guidance
What is considered the most suitable approach to meet these requirements?
A. Install the Avamar agent directly on each system
B. Install the NetWorker agent directly on each guest system
C. Use Avamar VCB to offload the ESX server
D. Use NetWorker VCB to offload the ESX server
Answer: B
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NO.8 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to use Data Domain Boost to take advantage of less LAN
traffic traversing the network.
However, after performing a backup, the LAN administrator noticed that the same amount of data is
being transmitted from the storage node to the Data Domain as it is from the client to the storage
node.
What needs to be enabled to take advantage of DD Boost on the storage node?
A. Distributed Segment Processing on the Data Domain
B. Distributed Segment Processing on the storage node
C. DD Boost on the storage node
D. DD Boost license on the NetWorker server
Answer: A
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Exam Code:
E20-329Exam Name: Technology Architect Backup and Recovery Solutions Design Exam
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
E20-329 Exam Questions Total Q&A: 326 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 07-16,2015
E20-329 VCE Dumps Detail : E20-329 Exam
Questions
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NO.1 While designing an EMC Data Domain solution, you need to determine the required amount of
storage capacity.
The following information was gathered from the customer:
- 2 TB full backup @ 5x compression
- 10% daily data change rate
- 4 incremental/week @ 10x compression
- 1x full per week @ 25x compression
- Retention period = 4 weeks with no data growth
What is the minimum amount of storage needed to support this solution?
A. 850 GB
B. 900 GB
C. 1040 GB
D. 1200 GB
Answer: C
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NO.2 Scenario
A customer is currently using third-party backup software for Oracle backups and writing backups to
third-party physical tape libraries and a VTL. Backups sent to the VTL are then vaulted to tape and
transported daily from the primary data center to the third-party facility.
They are experiencing high backup job failures with backup success rates of approximately 65%. In
addition, their time to disaster recovery readiness for backups is greater than 24 hours. The retention
period for database backups from disk-based backup is 4 weeks.
The customer is looking for a solution that will meet the following requirements:
Oracle DBA to manage backups through Oracle RMAN Backup their file system data using EMC
backup software Perform monthly full backups directly to physical tapes for offsite storage Reduce
the backup window to the possible maximum Increase the time to disaster recovery readiness.
Increase the retention period for database backups from disk-based backup to 6 weeks No additional
WAN bandwidth requirements Low TCO solution Free up the Fiber Channel switch infrastructure
Increase operational efficiency
Refer to Scenario .
The customer is considering using an EMC Data Domain system. They would like to know which Data
Domain protocol will meet their requirements.
What should be recommended?
A. DD Boost
B. NDMP
C. AFTD
D. VTL
Answer: A
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NO.3 You are designing a Data Protection Advisor (DPA) solution to support a NAS environment. The
environment consists of a Celerra, a NetApp file server, a backup infrastructure of 185 NetWorker
clients, and 300 Symantec NetBackup clients.
What are the appropriate DPA licensing requirements?
A. Backup option for 500 clients and one file server option for each NAS system
B. Backup option for 185 NetWorker and 300 NetBackup clients, and 1 Celerra, and 1 NetApp client
C. Backup option for 500 clients and a single file server option for the NAS systems
D. Backup option for required client count, a Celerra file server, and a NetApp file server option
Answer: A
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NO.4 An EMC Avamar customer wants to start backing up their VMware environment. The
customer's goal is to obtain the highest level of data deduplication support for file system and
application backups. In addition, they do not want to have to train their administrators on a new
backup method.
Which method of VMware backup will meet the customer's needs?
A. Install an Avamar agent on each guest OS
B. Install the Avamar agent on the ESX server console
C. Use a snapshot mounted to a proxy server over the SAN
D. Use VMware Consolidated Backup
Answer: A
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NO.5 A new EMC NetWorker customer has decided to use the traditional licensing model even
though they have a large number of licenses that they will need to load. Which option is available to
quickly install these licenses?
A. Download an nsradmin file from Powerlink and import the file
B. Download a text file of license keys and import through the NetWorker Management Console
C. Check for licenses automatically with the License Conformance Reporter
D. Copy and paste the licenses from the automatically generated e-mail
Answer: A
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NO.6 What is a reason for implementing EMC Data Protection Advisor (DPA) in a DPA clustered
architecture?
A. Restrict customer access to specific DPA application nodes
B. Use virtual machines for all DPA application servers
C. Power up a standby DPA application server automatically
D. Enable replication between DPA application servers
Answer: A
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NO.7 An EMC Avamar customer has a heavily utilized ESX system CPU utilization is a concern. Each
guest system, all of which are Linux must be backed up with file granularity. The customer has both
Avamar and NetWorker available and is looking to EMC for guidance
What is considered the most suitable approach to meet these requirements?
A. Install the Avamar agent directly on each system
B. Install the NetWorker agent directly on each guest system
C. Use Avamar VCB to offload the ESX server
D. Use NetWorker VCB to offload the ESX server
Answer: B
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NO.8 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to use Data Domain Boost to take advantage of less LAN
traffic traversing the network.
However, after performing a backup, the LAN administrator noticed that the same amount of data is
being transmitted from the storage node to the Data Domain as it is from the client to the storage
node.
What needs to be enabled to take advantage of DD Boost on the storage node?
A. Distributed Segment Processing on the Data Domain
B. Distributed Segment Processing on the storage node
C. DD Boost on the storage node
D. DD Boost license on the NetWorker server
Answer: A
EMC E20-329 Training online E20-329 PDF VCE
Pass4Test offer the latest 312-50v8 exam material and high-quality MB2-703 pdf questions & answers. Our 500-801 VCE testing engine and MB6-704 study guide can help you pass the real exam. High-quality ECP-102 dumps training materials can 100% guarantee you pass the exam faster and easier. Pass the exam to obtain certification is so simple.
Article Link: http://www.it2blog.com/e20-329-real-exams-e20-547-exam-pdf-e20-390-test-questions/
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